Saturday, December 21, 2013

LIC Recruitment Exam Study material Sample Question Papers




LIC Recruitment Exam Study material Sample Question Papers
Question model for LIC  recruitment


                                         
1. TESTIFY
(a) Witness
(b) Describe
(c) Recognise
(d) Appreciate
Answer. (a)

2. ASCEND
 (a) Leap
(b) Mount
(c) Deviate
(d) Grow
Answer. (b)

3. OSTRACIZE
(a) Cut off
(b) Expedite
(c) Welcome
 (d) Include
Answer. (a)

4. FORLORN
(a) Uncared
(b) Funny
(c) Fearful
(d) Fortunate
Answer. (a)

5. RILE
(a) Drag
(b) Agree
(c) Please
(d) Annoy
Answer. (d)

6. LAZE
(a) Abdicate
(b) Rest
(c) Waste
(d) Wander
Answer. (b)



7. UGLY
(a) Fearful
(b) Hateful
(c) Evil some
(d) Repulsive
Answer. (d)

8. SLOPPY
(a) Drunk
(b) Careless
(c) Tired
(d) Untrustworthy
Answer. (b)

9. HARBINGER
(a) Pilot
(b) Forerunner
(c) Steward
(d) Messenger
Answer. (d)

10. DISRUPT                                               
(a) Deny
(b) Refuse                                             
(c) Break
(d) Join
Answer. (c)

11. SUMPTUDUS                                                   
(a) Lavish
(b) Fancy
(c)Meagre
(d) Irritable
Answer. (a)



12. LATENT                                                     
(a) Prompt
(b) Lethargic
(c) Apparent
(d) ConceaIed 
Answer. (d)

13. NUMINOUS         
(a)Dull
(b) Awful
(c) Bright
(d) Dark
Answer. (b)

14. STUPID                              
(a) Silly
(b) Disobedient                             
(c) Insane
(d) Incapable
Answer. (a)

15. BUCOLIC                                                       
(a) Helpless
(b)Intoxicated
(c) Shameless
(d) Rustic
Answer. (d)

16. GROGGY
(a)Unsteady
(b) Sensible
(c) Sensitive   
(d) Pensive
Answer. (a)

17. VIE
(a) Hesitate
(b) Compete
(c) Refuse   
(d) Shirk
Answer. (b)

18. CONSOLEL
(a) Sympathies
(b) Share
(c) Pacify      
(d) Assist
Answer. (c)

19. GENESIS
(a) Relevant
(b) Beginning
(c) Style)    
(d) Movement
Answer. (a)

20. SULTRY
(a) Unpleasant
(b) Ill smelling
(c) Impure
(d) Hot & oppressive
Answer. (d)

21. HEDGE
(a) Corse
(b) Injure
(c) Evade   
(d) Harm
Answer. (c)

22. WAN
(a) Tired
(b) Strong
(c) Cheerful
(d) Unhappy
Answer. (a)

Monday, November 11, 2013

English Comprehension Objective MCQ

English Comprehension Objective MCQ

Comprehension English MCQs
Multiple choice - Reading Comprehension test
   
A great deal of discussion continues as to the real extent of global environmental
degradation and its implications. What few people challenge however, is that the
renewable natural resources of developing countries are today subject to stresses
of unprecedented magnitude. These pressures are brought about, in part by increased
population and the quest for an ever expanding food supply. Because the health,
nutrition and general well being of the poor majority are directly dependent on the
integrity and productivity of their natural resources, the capability of governments to
manage them effectively over the long term ‘becomes of paramount importance.
Developing countries are becoming more aware of the ways in which present
and future economic development must build upon a sound and sustainable
natural resource base. Some are looking at our long tradition in environmental
protection and are receptive to US assistance which recognized the uniqueness
of the social and ecological systems in these tropical countries. Developing countries
recognize the need to improve their capability to analyse issues and their own natural
resource management. In February 1981, for example AID funded a National, Academy of
Sciences panel to advise Nepal on, their severe natural resource degradation problems.
Some countries such as Senegal, India, Indonesia and Thailand, are now including conservation
concerns in their economic development planning process.
Because so many governments of developing nations have recognised the
importance of these issues, the need today is not merely one of raising additional
consciousness, but' for carefully designed and sharply focused activities aimed at
the establishment of effective resource management regimes that are essential to
the achievement of sustained development.

1. The poor people of the developing world can lead a happy and contented life if
(a) There is a North-South dialogue and aid flows freely to the developing world.
(b) Industries based on agriculture are widely developed
(c) Economic development takes place within the ambit of conservation of
      natural resources
(d) There is an assured supply of food and medical care.
Answer. (c)

2. Technical knowhow developed in the USA
(a) Cannot be easily assimilated by the technocrats of the developing countries
(b) Can be properly utilized on the basis of developing countries being able to
launch an in depth study of their specific problems
(c) Can be easily borrowed by the developing countries to solve the problem of
Environmental degradation
(d) Can be very effective in solving the problem of resource management in
tropical countries
Answer. (b)

3. How much environmental pollution has taken place in the developing and the
developed world?
(a) There has been a marginal pollution of environment in the developed
 world and extensive damage in the developing world.
(b) There has been a considerable pollution of environment all over the globes
(c) There has been an extensive environmental degradation both in
 the developed and the developing world.
(d) The environmental pollution that has taken place all over the globe continues to
 be a matter of speculation and enquiry.
Answer. (d)

4. Some of the developing countries of Asia and Africa have
(a) Formulated very ambitious plans of protecting habitat in the region
(b) Laid a great stress on the conservation of natural resources in their educational
endeavour
(c) Carefully dovetailed environmental conservation with the overall strategy of planned
economic development
(d) Sought the help of US experts in solving the problem of environmental degradation
Answer. (c)

5. There has been a pronounced deterioration of habitat all over the globe because of
(a) Rigorous operation of the Malthusian principle
(b) Unprecedented urbanization and dislocation of self contained rural communities
(c) Optimum degree of industrialization in the developing countries
(d) Large scale deforestation and desertification
Answer. (a)

Passage -2
A leading Indian industrialist in a recent article on ways to strengthen India’s economy has
drawn attention to the problems, of inflation and industrial sickness among other things.
One of the main reasons for industrial sickness in our country, has been the fact that
Business and industrial managers have not been able to look beyond the immediate future.
They have been too preoccupied with their attempts to report favorable results for
the current year higher profits and larger dividends to the share holders. The planning
horizon has hardly ever exceeded five years. Investments have been inadequate for new
plants and towards diversification and expansions. Modernization and asset creation has
seriously lagged behind. In business, growth is needed for survival; one has to grow if one
does not want to be wiped out. This is particularly true today with liberalization of imports
and increasing competition. Moreover, growth and higher productivity create employment
and higher employment creates larger markets both for industrial and consumer products.
It was Henry Ford who bought home the need for the creation of la larger and a more
Stable middle class, that is, a larger number of people who can afford more and more of
goods and services. Even alter forty years of independence our industrialists have not
been able to shed the petty shopkeeper’s mentality and our highly educated management
has tagged along merrily and without concern.

6. Which of the following short comings of Indian industrialists has been highlighted by
     the author?
(a) They invest unreasonable high amount on diversification and expansion.
(b) They are more concerned for immediate net gains than for developmental activities.
(c) They are reluctant to maintain the shopkeeper mentality.
(d) They are less concerned for payment of dividends to shareholders.
(e) None ofthe above
Answer. (b)

7. According to the passage, growth and increasing productivity lead to
(a) Imposition of restrictions on imports
(b) Employment and thus provide an outlet to industrial and consumer products
(c) Encouragement to export of excess consumer goods
(d) Disproportionate surplus of commodities
(e) None of the above
Answer. (b)

8. The planning horizon bias hardly ever exceeded five years implies
(a) Planning should not be for a period of less than five years.
(b) The planning process is very time consuming.
(c) The planners are not inclined to think of future.
(d) Planning should take care of all probable ups and downs in the next five-year period.
(e) Five-year period is too short for successful implementation of plans.
Answer. (e)

9. In order to improve the condition of Indian industries, the industrialist should do all of
the following except
(a) Giving up the narrow mentality which very small shopkeepers generally have
(b) Striving to earn long term profits
(c) Encouraging competition from industrialists within the country and from abroad
(d) Resorting to long-term planning for industrial growth and expansion in diverse fields
(e) Adopting strategies for diversification and modernization
Answer. (b)

10. The leading industrialist attributes industrial sickness mainly to
(a) Lacunae in five-year plans
(b) Preoccupations of managers with matters unrelated to business.
(c) Higher profits and larger dividends to shareholders
(d) Lack of foresight among managers
(e) Inflation and other economic problems
Answer. (c)

11. Why did Henry Ford stress the need for a more stable middle class?
(a) They are mostly service oriented.
(b) They do not have shopkeeper mentality
(c) They can afford to buy more and more expensive goods.
(d) They are most unstable
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)

12. According to the passage, the net gains pursued by managers are at the cost of
(a) Diversification, modernization and asset creation
(b) Availability of markets for industrial and consumer products
(c) Inflation and industrial sickness
(d) Liberalization of imports and increasing competition
(e) Higher profits and larger dividends to share holders
Answer. (a)

English Comprehension Objective Questions and Answers

English Comprehension Objective Questions and Answers
Comprehension - Verbal Ability Questions and Answers
Comprehension passages with questions and answers


Comprehension

Although cynics may like to see the government’s policy for women in terms of the party’s
internal power struggles, it will nevertheless be churlish to deny that it represents a
pioneering effort aimed at bringing about sweeping social reforms. In its language, scope
and strategies, the policy document displays a degree of understanding of women’s needs
that is uncommon in government pronouncements. This is due in large part to the participatory
process that marked its formulation, seeking the active involvement right  from the start of
women’s groups, academic institutions and non-government organizations with grass roots
experience. The result is not just a lofty declaration of principles hut a blueprint for a practical
programme of action. The policy delineates a series of concrete measures to accord women a
decision-making role in the political domain and greater control over their economic status.
Of especially far-reaching impact is the devolution of control of economic infrastructure to
women, notably at the gram Panchayat level, and the amendments proposed in the Hindu
Succession Act of 1956 to give women coparcenaries rights.
An enlightened aspect of the policy is its recognition that actual change in the status of
women cannot be brought about by the mere enactment of socially progressive legislation,
Accordingly, it focuses on reorienting development programmes and sensitising administrations
to address specific situations as, for instance, the growing number of Households headed by women,
which is a consequence of rural-urban migration. The proposal to create an equals opportunity police
force and give women greater control of police stations is an acknowledgement of the biases and
callousness displayed by the generally all male law-enforcement authorities in cases of dowry and
domestic violence, While the mere enunciation of such a policy has the salutary effect of sensitising
the administration as a whole, it does not make the task of its implementation any easier.

This is because the changes it envisages in the political and economic status of women
strike at the root of power structures in society and the basis of man-woman relationships.
There is also the danger that reservation for women in public life, while necessary for their
greater visibility, could lapse into tokenism or become a tool in the hands of vote seeking
politicians. Much will depend on the dissemination of the policy and the ability of elected
representatives and government agencies to reorder their priorities.


1. Which of the following is true about the policy? 
(a) This is another pronouncement by the government
(b) It is a pioneering effort
(c) It is not based on the understanding of women’s needs.
(d) It has made many big declarations.
(e) In its formulation, participatory approach was not followed.
Answer. (b)

2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Most of the, government’s policies are formulated through participatory process.
(b) There is need for stricter legislation
(c) The policy recommends reservation for women.
(d) Domestic violence is on the rise
(e) Women already had coparcenaries rights.
Answer. (c)




3. According to the passage which of the following is the basic block in the effective
implementation of the policy?
(a) Prevalent power structure in society
(b) Inadequate legislation
(c) Insensitive administration
(d) Lack of political will
(e) Male dominated law-enforcing authorities.
Answer. (a)


4. According to the passage which of the following is not true?
(a) The policy gives a blue print for programme of action
(b) The women should be given greater control of police stations.
(c) There is no law-enforcement bias in cases of dowry.
(d) For effective implementation, the government agencies will have to
      reorder their priorities.
(e) The policy is based on the understanding of the needs of women.
Answer. (c)

5. Which of the following has the danger of becoming a token?
(a) Socially progressive legislation
(b) Policy for women
(c) Coparcenaries rights to women
(d) Man-woman relationships
(e) Reservation for women
Answer. (e)


6. Which of the following words is the most opposite in meaning to ‘sweeping’ as used in
the passage?
(a) Limited
(b) Half-hearted
(c) Acceptable
(d) Incomplete
(e) Inconclusive
Answer. (a)

7. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to ‘lofty’ as used in the passage?
(a) Sublimated
(b) Humble
(c) Inferior
(d) Exalted
(e) Undignified
Answer. (e)

8. Which of the following is nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘devolution’ as
used in  the passage?
(a) Relegation
(b) Succession
(c) Deployment
(d) Decentralization
(e) Revolution
Answer. (d)


9. Which of the following is the most nearly the same in meaning to 'callousness' as
used in the passage?
(a) Prejudice
(b) Insensitivity
(c) Obliquities
(d) Casual
(e) Superiority
Answer. (b)

10. Which of the following is nearly the same in meaning to the word 'delineates' as
Used in the passage?
(a) Discusses
(b) Demarcates
(c) Suggests
(d) Outlines
(e) Propagates
Answer. (d)

11. According to the passage, this of the following aspects has been identified as,
 it alone would not bring change in the status of Women?
(a) Coparcenaries rights to women
(b) Decision making role in political area
(c) Greater control over economic status
(d) Creating equal-opportunity police force
(e) Enactment of socially progressive legislation
Answer. (e)

12. At which stage were the grass-root level organizations involved for the policy?
(a) After the interim report
(b) From the start
(c) At the final stages
(d) Not mentioned in the passage
(e) None of these
Answer. (b)




13. According to the passage, which of the following is a consequence of rural-urban
migration?
(a) Legislation is not enforced properly.
(6) Many women migrate to urban areas leaving their p family fin the rural areas.
(c) Industries do not get sufficient manpower in rural areas.
(d) Development programmes are not effective.
(e) None of the above.
Answer. (e)

14. Which of the following is one of the far-reaching impacts of the policy?
(a) Give women coparcenaries rights
(b) Reservation for women
(c) Creating an equal-opportunity police force
(d) Accord women a decision, making role in political sphere
(e) None of the above
Answer. (a)

15. Which of the following words is most nearly the same in meaning as the word
  ‘enunciation’ as used in the passage?
(a) Suggestion
(b) Formulation
(c) Recommendation
(d) Proclamation
(e) Recognition
Answer. (d)

Indian Law MCQ Objective Questions

Indian Law MCQ  Objective Questions
Indian Law MCQ Objective Questions on Indian Law
Online Free indian law MCQ - practice test



1. The quorum for meetings of the House of People constitutes—
(A) 1/10th of the total members
(B) 1/10th of the total members or 100 members whichever is less
(C) 1/3rd of the total number
(D) 100 members
Ans:-A

2. In which case, the Supreme Court directed the Government to implement the law against female feticides with full determination?
(A) Parents Association Vs. Union of India
(B) Madhu Kishwar V. State of Bihar
(C) CEHAT Vs. Union of India
(D) Nishi Maghu Vs. State of Jammu and Kashmir
Ans:-C

3. Assertion (A) : Right to education is a Fundamental Right.
Reason (R) : Our Constitution has no provision for education before making right to education as Fundamental Right.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is falser.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-C

4. The law declared by Supreme Court of India is binding on all courts within the territory of India, but the Supreme Court is not bound by its decision was decided by the Supreme Court itself in—
(A) Keshavanand Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
(B) Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain
(C) Madhav Rao Scindia Vs. Union of India
(D) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. Vs. State of Bihar
Ans:-D


5. “The statement in order to constitute a ‘confession’ under the Indian Evidence Act, must either admit in terms the offence or at any rate substantially all facts which constitute the offence.” The above view was expressed by the Privy Council in which one of the following cases?
(A) John Makin Vs. Attorney General
(B) Pakla Narain Swamy Vs. Emperor
(C) H.H.B. Gill Vs. King Emperor
(D) Q. E. Vs. Abdullah
Ans:-B


6. In which of the following cams, it was held that Section-27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to Sections-24, 25 and 26?
(A) Pakla Narain Swamy Vs. King Emperor
(B) Inayatullah Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) State of U.P. Vs. Deoman Upadhyaya
(D) P. Kottayya Vs. King Emperor .
Ans:-D


7. In a pledge ownership of property or goods—
(A) Continued in pledge
(B) Transferred to the pledge
(C) Cannot be transferred to pledges under any circumstances
(D) Cannot continue with pledge under any circumstances
Ans:-A

8. If the holder of service land dies, resigns or is lawfully dismissed, the land shall pass—
(A) By survivorship
(B) To his successor -in-office
(C) By agreement
(D) By patta
Ans:-B

9. Agriculture year means the year commencing on—
(A) 1st day of January
(B) 1st day of April
(C) 1st day of July
(D) 1St day of October
Ans:-C

10. Under section 50 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, no application for revision shall be entertained by Commissioner or Settlement Commissioner or Collector or Settlement Officer, as the case may be, unless presented within—
(A) Thirty days
(B) Forty-five days
(C) Sixty days
(D) Seventy-five days
   from the date of order.
Ans:-C

11. On his death, interest of Bhumiswami shall not pass by—
(A) Inheritance
(B) Survivorship
(C) Bequest
(D) Any agreement
Ans:-D

12. Where a dispute arises between the State Government and any person in respect of any right under section 57(1) of M.P. Land Revenue Code, providing for State ownership in all lands, such dispute shall be decided by the—
(A) Revenue Board
(B) Patwari
(C) Sub-Divisional Officer
(D) Naib Tehsildar
Ans:-C

13. Any person aggrieved by any entry made in Wazib-ul-arj may institute a suit in Civil
Court to have such entry cancelled or modified within—
(A) 90 days
(B) One year
(C) Two years
(D) Three years
  from the date of publication of such records.
Ans:-B

14. A decree may be executed—
(A) By the court which passed the decree
(B) By any other court to which a decree has been sent for execution
(C) Both statements are correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
Ans:-C

15. A decree can be—
(A) Preliminary
(B) Final
(C) First preliminary then final
(D) Either preliminary or final
Ans:-D

16. Principle of Resjudicata applies—
(A) To suits only
(B) To execution proceedings only
(C) To arbitration proceedings only
(D) To suits as well as execution proceedings
Ans:-D

17. The plaint shall be rejected by the court, under order 7 rule 11(e) of Civil Procedure
Code, if it is not filed in—
(A) Duplicate
(B) Triplicate
(C) Quadruplicate
(D) Five copies
Ans:-A

18. An ex prate decree can be set aside on the ground that—
(A) Summons were not duly served
(B) Non-appearance of defendant as copies of documents filed with plaint were not provided to defendant
(C) Defendant refused to receive the summons and thereafter no fresh summons were issued to him
(D) An ex prate decree cannot be set aside under any circumstance
Ans:-A


19. Pleading can be amended—
(A) Before the trial court only
(B) Before the first appellate court only
(C) Before either the trial court or first appellate court or second appellate court
(D) Before second appellate court only
Ans:-C


20. A judgment passed by a court can be reviewed by—
(A) The court passing the judgement
(B) The court of District Judge
(C) The High Court
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans:-A

21. X finds one thousand rupee’s note on the public road. He does not know to whom the note belongs. X pick up the note. Here X has—
(A) Not committed any offence
(B) Committed dishonest mis-appropriation of property
(C) Committed robbery
(D) Committed theft
Ans:-A

22. X and Y both go to murder Z, X stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit Z at all Y killed
(A) Only Y is liable for murder of Z
(B) X and Y both are liable for murder of Z
(C) X is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
(D) (A) and (C) both are correct
Ans:-B

23. X is at work with hatchet, the head of hatchet flies off and kills a man Y who was stand by Here, if there is no want of proper Caution on the part of X, his act is—
(A) Not excusable and an offence
(B) Excusable and not an offence
(C) An offence but benefit of probation is necessary
(D) An offence or not is depend of the sweet will of the legal representative of deceased
Ans:-B


24. ‘Creamy Layer’ rules excluding the well placed members of a caste from reservation was first laid down in the case of—
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar
(B) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(C) Indra Sawhney Vs. Union of India
(D) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
Ans:-C

25. After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes, introduced by an Amendment of the Constitution of India?
(A) D. P. Joshi Vs. State of Madhya Bharat
(B) M. R. Balaji Vs. State of Mysore
(C) State of Madras Vs. Champakam Dorairajan
(D) T. Devadasan Vs. Union of India
Ans:-C