Wednesday, November 30, 2011

Free Online Geography Model Test Paper

Free Online Geography Model Test Paper
Practice Test Paper Of Geography
1. Which of the following are true regarding the crust of the earth?
I. It is the outer thin layer with a total thickness of about 100 km
ll. It forms around 0.5 percent of the earth’s volume
lll. The outer covering of the crust is of sedimentary material
IV. The lower layer of the crust consists of basaltic and ultra-basic rocks
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, ll, Ill and IV
Answer. (c)

2. What is the approximate equatorial circumference of the earth?
(a) 30,000 km
(b) 35,000 km
(c) 40,000 km
(d) 45,000 km
Answer. (c)

3. The place which has the longest day and the shortest night on 22nd December is:
(a) Chennai
(b) Madrid
(c) Melbourne
(d) Moscow
Answer. (c)

4. Owing to the equatorial bulge and the polar flattening, the polar radius of the earth falls
short of the equatorial radius by about:
(a) 22 km
(b) 36 km
(c) 41 km
(d) 53 km
Answer. (a)

5. The earth is at the largest distance from the sun (Aphelion) on:
(a) June 21st
(b) January 3rd
(c) July 4th
(d) September 23rd
Answer. (c)

6. Which part of the earth’s surface receives the highest amount of insulation?
(a) Tropical deserts
(b) Equatorial region
(c) Savanna region
(d) No such criteria
Answer. (a)

7. Which of the following layers of the earth is believed to have the heaviest mineral
materials of highest density?
(a) Central core
(b) Crust
(c) Mantle
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer. (a)

8. Tides in the sea have stored in them:
(a) Hydraulic energy
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Gravitational potential energy
(d) A combination of all the above three forms of energy.
Answer. (d)

9. Which one of the following would have occurred if the earth had NOT been inclined
on its own axis?
(a) All the seasons would have been of same duration
(b) The seasons would not have changed
(c) The summers would have been of longer duration
(d) The winters would have been of longer duration
Answer. (b)

10. The upper part of the mantle upon which the crust of the Earth floats is called:
(a) Bar sphere
(b) Mesophere
(c) Mohorvicic discontinuity
(d) Asthenosphere
Answer. (d)

11. Which of the following phenomenon is/are the effect of the rotation of the Earth?
1. Apparent movement of the Sun, the Moon and the Stars.
2. Flatness of the poles and bulge at the Equator.
3. Occurrence of sunrise, noon and sunset
4. Magnetic field of the earth.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer. (d)

12. Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of
percent by mass in the earth‘s crust?
(a) Silicon
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon
(d) Calcium
Answer. (b)

13. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves from:
(a) West to east
(b) East and west of the prime meridian
(c) Poles to equator
(d) Equator to poles
Answer. (d)

14. Which of the following statements with regard to the term ‘great circle’ is not correct?
(a) Equator is a great circle
(b) A ship can save fuel and time by following the great circle arc between two points
(c) Only one great circle can be drawn on a sphere
(d) A great circle results when a plane passes through the centre of a sphere
Answer. (c)

15. The total surface area of earth is:
(a) 510 million sq km
(b) 610 million sq km
(c) 710 million sq km
(d) 810 million sq km
Answer. (a)

16. The approximate diameter of the earth is:
(a) 4,200 km
(b) 6,400 km
(c) 12,800 km
(d) 15,600 km
Answer. (c)

17. Geostationary orbit is at a height of:
(a) 6 km
(b) 1000 km
(c) 3600 km
(d) 36,000 km
Answer. (d)

18. The Earth rotates around an axis pointing towards:
(a) The moon
(b) The pole star
(c) The sun
(d) Venus
Answer. (b)

19. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other
three cities at any given instant?
(a) London (U.K.)
(b) Lisbon (Portugal)
(c) Accra (Ghana)
(d) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
Answer. (d)

20. In the earliest days when life originated on earth, the atmosphere contained:
(a) Free oxygen
(b) No oxygen
(c) Oxygen in fixed form
(d) Oxygen bound to carbon
Answer. (d)

21. Who among the following was first to measure the circumferences of the Earth?
(a) Eratosthenes
(b) Aristotle
(c) Hecate’s
(d) Herodotus
Answer. (a)

22. Latitude of place is indicative of its:
(a) Time
(b) Altitude
(c) Amount of rainfall
(d) Temperature
Answer. (d)

23. Tides are complied and they vary from place to place because of:
(a) The movement of Moon in relation to Earth
(b) Uneven distribution of water over the globe
(c) Irregularities in the configuration of oceans
(d) All of the above
Answer. (d)

24. If there are four places on the same meridian 500 km apart and the local time at one place
is 12 : 00 noon, what will be the time at the three other places?
(a) 12 : 00 noon
(b) 1 : 00 pm
(c) 2 : 00 pm
(d) Different time at different places
Answer. (a)

25. Assume that the moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the cycle and also assume that it
rises in the east exactly at 6 : 48 pm, on the first day. On the fourth day, at what time will it use?
(a) 8 : 24pm
(b) 9 : 12pm
(c) 10 : 00 pm
(d) 11 : 48 pm
Answer. (c)

MCQ Solved GK Test Paper

MCQ Solved GK Test Paper
Practice Sample Paper GK
1. In the election of the President who of the
Following do not take part?
(a) Members of Legislative Council
(b) Elected Members of Lok Sabha
(c) Elected Members of Rajya Sabha
(d) Elected Members bf Vidhan Sabha
Answer. (a)

2. The first Basket Ball Academy in India has
Been set up at:
(a) Indore
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Bhopal
(d) New Delhi
Answer. (a)

3. Which Republic of the former U.S.S.R. Has been provided with permanent membership
Of the Security Council of the place of The U.S.S.R?
(a) Russian Federation
(b) Georgia
(c) Ujbekistan
(d) Estonia
Answer. (a)

4. The planet nearest to the sun is:
(a) Mercury
(b) Saturn
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mars
Answer. (a)

5. The equatorial diameter of the earth is:
(a) 12,700 km
(b) 12,756 km
(c) 13,000 km
(d) 12,800 km
(e) 12,900 km
Answer. (b)

6. How many centuries Gavaskar has scored in Test Cricket?
(a) 30
(b) 33
(c) 34
(d) 31
Answer. (b)
7. When was the United Nations Organisation? Founded?
(a) 20th October, 1945
(b) 11th November, l9-44
(c) 24th October, 1945
(d) 26th June, 1945
Answer. (c)

8. Name the State of India which is the last to have become a State:
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Tripura
(d) Goa
Answer. (d)

9. Which of the following is not one of the
Working languages of the U.N.O.?
(a) French
(b) Spanish
(c) Arabic
(d) Italian
Answer. (d)

10. The headquarters of the International Atomic
Energy Agency is located in:
(a) Paris
(b) Washington
(c) New York
(d) Vienna
Answer. (d)

11. Sea of Tranquility is:
(a) A place where calm prevails
(b) A sea where is the least disturbance
(c) A place on moon where American
Astronauts landed
(d) None of the above
Answer. (c)

12. National income of a country is based on:
(a) The taxes earned by the state
(b) The sum of all factor incomes
(c) Personal incomes of all the citizens
(d) Surplus of exports over imports
Answer. (b)

13. The United Nations agency concerned withThe improvement of standards of education
And strengthening international co-operation In this field is:
(a) U.N.E.F.
(b) U.N.E.S.C.O.
(c) U.N.I.C.E.F.
(d) U.N.E.D.O.
Answer. (b)

14. In the modern time International relations are determined primarily by:
(a) Political considerations
(b) Social considerations
(c) Scientific considerations
(d) Economic considerations
Answer. (d)

15. Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice?
(a) Paris (France)
(b) Rome (Italy)
(c) The Hague (Netherlands)
(d) Washington (U.S.A.)
Answer. (c)

16. The present Secretary General' of the
U.N.O. belongs to:
(a) Cuba
(b) Greece
(c) Poland
(d) Ghana
Answer. (d)

17. Mixed economy implies:
(a) Co-existence of heavy industries and Small scale and cottage industries
(b) Promotion of agriculture as well as Industries
(c) Presence of the rich and the poor
(d) Co-existence of public sector and Private sector
Answer. (d)

18. Which of the following countries has
Accepted ‘Democratic Socialism’ as it’s Goal?
(a) England
(b) Russian Federation
(c) China
(d) India
Answer. (d)

19. The first Secretary General of the United
Nations was:
(a) Mrs. Vijai Lakshmi Pandit
(b) Trygve Lie
(c) Dag Hommarsk Joeld
(d) U. Thant
Answer. (b)

20. The specialized agency of the U.N.O. Which helps the development of the
Member countries by giving loans for Development projects are known as:
(a) I.B.R.D.
(b) I.M.F
(d) S.D.R.
Answer. (a)

21. Which of the following awards has been
Instituted by K.K. Birla Foundation?
(a) Kalidas Samman
(b) Tansen Samman
(c) Saraswati Samman
(d) Moorti Devi Award
Answer. (c)

22. The non-permanent members of the
Security Council are elected for a period of:
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) three years
(d) four years
Answer. (b)

23. The smallest particle of substance capable
Of independent existence and retaining the
Properties of the original substance is
(a) Atom
(b) Molecule
(c) Neutron
(d) Electron
Answer. (b)

24. The share of agriculture and allied activities
In India’s national income is about:
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(C) 27%
(d) 85%
Answer. (c)

25. Which of the following is not a unit of Time?
(a) Nano Second
(b) Light year
(c) Micro-second
(d) Second
Answer. (b)

GK Model Test Paper General Awareness Practice Test

GK Model Test Paper General Awareness Practice Test
Sample Paper Of GK
1. Geyser refers to:
(a) A hot water spring
(b) A bright star
(c) An animal which survives in the polar regions
(d) A wann ocean current
Answer. (a)

2. The place with the highest rainfall in India is:
(a) Masinram
(b) Cincinnati
(c) Kwajalein
(d) Waialeab
(e) Verkhoyansk
Answer. (a)

3. The Judges of the Supreme Court of India
Hold office till they attain the age of:
(a) 60 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 65 years
(d) None of the above
Answer. (c)

4. The largest continent in the world is:
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) Europe
(e) Africa
Answer. (c)

5. Seasons occur because:
(a) The earth rotates
(b) The earth is round
(c) The earth’s revolution around the sun
(d) The earth’s axis is inclined by
(e) Combined effect of (c) and (b) above
Answer. (e)

6. The planet that lies at the outermost orbit
Of the solar system is:
(a) Saturn
(b) Neptune
(c) Mercury
(d) Pluto
Answer. (d)

7. Name the Secretary General of the U.N.O.
Who died in an aircrash:
(a) Trigve Lie
(b) Kurt Waldheim
(c) Dag Hammerskjoeld
(d) U. Thant
Answer. (c)

8. The Parliamentary Committee which
Scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India:
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Select Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) None of the above
Answer. (c)

9. Aurora borealis is:
(a) A medical term for boric powder
(b) A phenomenon of Coloured lights Visible in the northern hemisphere.
(c) A cinema theatre
(d) A Russian master craftsman
(e) A Greek goddess
Answer. (b)

10. Which one is not a Fundamental Right in the
Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Liberty
(c) Right against exploitation and forced
(d) Right to Property
Answer. (d)

11. The Heavy Engineering Corporation is
Located at:
(a) Sindri
(b) Tiruchi
(c) Kanchi
(d) Pimpri
(e) Ranchi
Answer. (e)

12. Where did the East India Company set up
It’s first factory in India during the reign of Jahangir?
(a) Surat
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Answer. (a)

13. Habeas Corpus is:
(a) An order from a higher court to stop Proceedings in a case and follow the
Specified alternative course
(b) An order from a court to any official to Show his right to the office
(c) An order from a superior court to a lower Court to do a specific work
(d) An order from the court to produce the Man held under illegal detention
(e) None of the above
Answer. (d)

14. Eldorado is:
(a) County in California
(b) A tract of fertile land in Africa
(c) Fictitious country or city abound in
Gold and riches
(d) The desert land in China
Answer. (c)

15. Antara is the News Agency of:
(a) Rumania
(b) Yugoslavia
(c) Indonesia
(d) Hungary
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)

16. The name Typhoon comes from the Chinese word “Taifu” which means:
(a) Heavy rain
(b) High wind
(c) Clear sky
(d) Chilly weather
(e) Calm sea
Answer. (b)

17. In India diamond is mainly found in:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamilnadu
Answer. (c)

18. Which country in the world is the largest Producer of copper?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Russia
(c) South Africa
(d) China
Answer. (a)

19. The largest river in the world is:
(a) Nile
(b) Brahmputra
(c) Amazon
(d) Missisipi
(e) Ganga
Answer. (c)

20. Panna in Madhya Pradesh is associated With:
(a) Manganese
(b) Mica
(c) Copper
(d) Diamond
(e) Gold
Answer. (d)

21. The epithet ‘Land of the Rising Sun’ is
Used for:
(a) Cambodia
(b) Japan
(c) Thailand
(d) Indonesia
Answer. (b)

22. What are Pillars of Hercules?
(a) Straits of Gibraltar
(b) Straits of Phosphorous
(c) A huge building in Rome
(d) A huge structure in Greece
Answer. (a)

23. The biggest planet is:
(a) Uranus
(b) Jupiter
(c) Pluto
(d) Mercury
(e) Venus
Answer. (b)

24. A huge mass of snow moving slowly
Down the valley and slopes of mountains
Till it melts after passing the snow line is Called:
(a) Iceberg
(b) Glacier
(c) Avalanche
(d) Typhoon
Answer. (c)

25. India can be ranked as the.... in the world:
(a) Tenth largest country
(b) Seventh largest country
(c) Fourth largest country
(d) Third largest country
Answer. (b)

General Knowledge Question Paper For all Exams.

General Knowledge Question Paper For all Exams.
Model Test Paper GK

1. Antibodies in our bodies:
(a) Cause diseases
(b) Cure infection
(c) Are poisonous substances
(d) Protect us against disease
Answer. (d)

2.Name the Most circulated daily in India (English):
(a) The Hindu
(b) Indian Express
(c) The Times of India
(d) The Telegraph
Answer. (c)

3. The supreme Command of Indian armed Forces is vested in:
(a) The Prime Minister of India
(b) The President of India
(c) The Defence Minister of India
(d) None of the above
Answer. (b)

4. What is the lowest commissioned rank in the Indian Air Force? What is its equivalent in
The land army?
I. (a) Pilot officer
(b) Flying officer
(c) Flt. Lieutenant
Answer. I (a)

II. (a) Lieutenant
(b) Captain
(c) 2nd Lieutenant
(d) Major
Answer. II(c)

5. Name the States in Nagarjun Sagar Dam is located?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamilnadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer. I(c)

6. Name the States in Hirakud Dam is located?
(a) Orissa
(b) Karnataka
(c) U.P.
(d) Gujrat
(e) Kerala
Answer. (a)

7. Where are tanks manufactured in India?
(a) Avadi
(b) Perambur
(c) Bhadravati
(d) Kirkee
Answer. (a)

8. What Is the name of the Indian made Main Battle Tank?
(a) Garuda
(b) Arjun
(c) Maruti
(d) Ajeya
Answer. (b & d)

9. Where is the National Defence Academy
Situated at?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Khadakvasla
(c) Poona
(d) Wellington
Answer. (b)

10. India is the chief exporter of:
(a) Coffee
(b) Mica
(c) Silk
(d) Jute
Answer. (b)

(11) The longest dam in India is:
(a) Aswan
(b) Gorky
(c) Hirakud
(d) Kiev
(e) Mangla
Answer. (c)

12. The President of India can be removed from Office by:
(a) The Lok Sabha by passing a resolution
(b) The Parliament through impeachment
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer. (b)

13. Central Building Research Institute is located
(a) Lucknow
(b) Varanasi
(c) Roorkee
(d) Chennai
Answer. (c)

14. The Rashtrapati Bhawan in New Delhi was Designed by:
(a) Le Corbusier
(b) Edwin Lutyens
(c) Edward Stone
(d) None of these
Answer. (b)

15. Name the writer who refused to accept the
Nobel Prize for Literature:
(a) Ernest Hemingway
(b) Boris Pasternak
(c) Allen Ginsberg
(d) Jean-Paul Sarte
Answer. (d)

16. (A) Who of the following has received Dada Sahib Falke Award in 1998?
(a) Lata Mangeshkar
(b) Dr. Raj Kumar
(c) Pradeep
(d) Nitin Bose
Answer. (c)

17. Which of the following Vitamin is Useful in Osteoinalacia?
(a) Vitamin ‘D’
(b) Vitamin
(c) Vitamin ‘A’
(d) Vitamin ‘C’
Answer. (a)

18. What is the total population of India?
According to 1991 census?
(a) 8463 crores
(b) 68-00 crores
(c) 64-85 crores
(d) 8439 crores
Answer. (a)

19. Where is the Railway Staff College located?
(a) Pune
(b) Delhi
(c) Vadodaia
(d) Allahabad
Answer. (c)

20. Where‘s Central Mining Research Station
(a) Cuttack
(b) Jamshedpur
(c) Dhanbad
(d) Bhavnagar
(e) Pune
Answer. (c)

21. Which of the following is not a cereal?
(a) Rice
(b) Mustard
(c) Maize
(d) Barley
Answer. (b)

22. Where is the Head Quarters of Election
Commission located?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Answer. (c)

23. Where is the ‘National Gallary of Modern
Art’ located?
(a) Mysore
(b) Kanpur
(c) New Delhi
(d) Chennai
(e) Lucknow
Answer. (c)

24. Who is the Chairman of Railway Board?
(a) Suresh Kalmadi
(b) Gani Khan Chaudhary
(c) V. K. Agarwal
(d) Madhavan Ravindra
Answer. (c)

25. Indian economy is:
(a) Lessiz-faire
(b) Gandhian type
(c) Mixed economy
(d) Free economy
Answer. (c)

Tuesday, November 29, 2011

Computer Sample Practice Test Paper

Computer Sample Practice Test Paper
MCQ Computer Objective Paper
1. The most frequently used instructions of a Computer program are likely to be fetched from
(a) The hard disk
(b) Cache memory
(c) RAM
(d) Registers
(e) None of these

2. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the we are known as
(a) Listservs
(b) Webcasts
(c) Blogs
(d) Subject directories
(e) None of these

3. It describe what is database fields
(a) Structures
(b) Field markers
(c) Field definition
(d) Field names
(e) None of these

4. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan
Horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as
(a) Spyware
(b) Adware
(c) Spam
(d) Malware
(e) None of these

5. Linux is which type of operating system?
(a) Open-source
(b) Microsoft
(c) Windows
(d) Mac
(e) None of these

6. Compiler is the
(a) Name given to the computer operator
(b) Part of the digital machine to store the- information
(c) Translator of source program to object
(d) Part of arithmetic logic unit
(e) Operator of Boolean Algebra

7. A goal of normalization is to
(a) Minimize the number of relationships
(b) Minimize the number of entities
(c) Minimize the number of tables
(d) Minimize the number of redundancy
(e) None of the above

8. These are lists of commands that appear on the
(a) GUIS
(b) Icons
(c) Menus
(d) Windows
(e) None of these

9. Verification of a login name and password is
Known as
(a) Configuration
(b) Accessibility
(c) Authentication
(d) Logging in
(e) None of the above

10. Which of the following is the smallest and fastest computer imitating brain working ?
(a) Supercomputer
(b) Quantum Computer
(c) Param-a0,000
(d) IBM chips
(e) None of these

11. Servers are those computers which provide
resources to other computers connected by
(a) Network
(b) Main frame
(c) Super computer
(d) Client
(e) None of these
12. The ........ key and the .......,. key can be used in combination with other keys to perform
shortcuts and special tasks.
(a) Control, Alt
(b) Function, Toggle
(c) Delete, Insert
(d) Caps Lock, Num Lock
(e) None of these

13. How many options does a binary choice offer ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) It depends on the amount of memory in the
(e) It depends on the speed of the computers

14. Data going into the computer is called
(a) Output
(b) Algorithm
(c) Input
(d) Calculations
(e) Flowchart

15. Transformation of input into output is performed by
( a) Peripherals
(b) Memory
(c) Storage
(d) The Input-output unit
(e) The CPU

16. A collection of programs that controls how your
computer system runs and processes information is called
(a) Operating system
(b) Computer
(c) Office
(d) Compiler
(e) Interpreter

17. A set of instructions telling the computer what
to do is called
(a) Mentor
(b) Instructor
(c) Compiler
(d) Program
(e) Debugger

18. Which of the following can handle most system
functions that aren’t handled directly by the
operating system ?
(a) Vertical-market applications
(b) Utilities
(c) Algorithms
(d) Integrated software
(e) Compilers

19. How many values can be represented by a single
byte ?
(a) d
(b) a6
(c) 6d
(d) be6
(e) eab

20. Device drivers are u
(a) Tiny power cords for external storage devices
(b) Experts who know how to maximize the performance of devices
(c) Small, special-purpose programs
(d) The innermost part of the operating system
(e) Substitutes for operating systems

21. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network ?
(a) LAN
(b) DSL
(c) RAM
(d) USB
(e) CPU

22. If you receive an e-mail from someone you don’t
know, what should you do ?
(a) Forward it to the police immediately
(b) Delete it without opening it
(c) Open it and respond to them saying you don’t know them
(d) Reply and ask them for their personal information
(e) Reply and tell them you want to keep in touch with them
23. Computers- connected to a LAN (Local Area
Network) can
(a) Run faster
(b) Go on line
(c) Share information and/or share peripheral equipment
(d) E-mail
(e) None of the above

24. Information travels between components on the
motherboard through
(a)Flash memory
(c) Bays
(d) Buses

25. Microsoft office is
(a) Share ware
(b) public-domain software
(c) open-source software
(d) A vertical-market application
(e) An application suite

Solved Question Paper Computer Science

Solved Question Paper Computer Science
Computer Model Test Paper
1. This manual tells you how to use software Program
(a) Documentation
(b) Programming
(C) technical
(d) User
(e) None of these

2. It is the process of finding errors in software code
(a) Debugging
(b) Compiling
(c) Testing
(d) Running
(e) None of these

3. Which of the following places the common data? Elements in order from smallest to largest?
(a) Character, file, record, field, database
(b) Character, record, field, database, file
(c) Character, field, record, file, database
(d) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file,Database
(e) None of the above

4. The contents of -------- are lost when the computer turns off.
(a) Storage
(b) Input
(c) Output
(d) Memory
(e) None of these

5. Programs from the same developer, sold Bundled together, that provide better integration
And share common features, toolbars and menus are known as
(a) Software suites
(b) Integrated software packages
(c) Software processing packages
(d) Personal information managers
(e) None of the above

6. These servers store and manage files for
Network users
(a) Authentication
(b) Main
(c) Web
(d) File
(e) None of these

7. These terminals (formerly known as cash Registers) are often connected to complex
Inventory and sales computer systems
(a) Data
(b) Sales
(c) Query
(d) Point-of-sale (POS)
(e) None of the above

8. It is the set of programs that enables your Computers hardware devices and application Software to work together
(a) Management
(b) Processing
(c) Utility
(d) System Software
(e) None of these

9. The following are all computing devices, except
(a) Notebook computers
(b) Cellular telephones
(c) Digital scanners
(d) Personal digital assistants
(e) None of the above

10. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard,
Screen, disk drives, and parallel and serial ports
(a) Basic input/ output system
(b) Secondary input/ output system
(c) Peripheral input/ output system
(d) Marginal input/output system
(e) None of the above

11. It controls the way in which the computer system
Functions and provides a way by which users can
Interact with the computer?
(a) The platform
(b) Application software
(c) Operating system
(d) The motherboard
(e) None of the above

12. A goal of data mining includes which of the
(a) To explain some observed event or
(b) To confirm that data exists
(c) To analyse data for expected relationships
(d) To create a new data warehouse
(e) None of the above

13. A Proxy server is used for which of the
(a) To provide security against unauthorized Users
(b) To process client requests for web pages
(c) To process client requests for database Access
(d) To provide TCP/IP
(e) None of the above

14. Words that a programming language has set
Aside for its own use
(a) Control worlds
(b) Reserved words
(c) Control structures
(d) Reserved keys
(e) None of these

15. Program threats are
(a) Trap doors
(b) Trojan horse
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Virus

16. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is
(a) Delay time
(b) Real time
(c) Execution time
(d) Down time

17. Who invented the super-computer ?
(a) P.T. Farnsworth
(b) J .R. Whin field
(c) J.H. Van Tassell
(d) Charles Ginsberg

18. The bar which displays information about the
Current page number is
(a) Title bar
(b) Status bar
(c) Standard bar
(d) Formatting bar

19. Which is not true of a correlated sub query ?
(a) EXISTS/NOT EXISTS is a form of a correlated sub query
(b) The processing of the SELECT statements is nested
(c) They can be used to verify functional dependencies
(d) They are very similar to a regular sub query

20. The data model that is produced from reverse engineering is
(a) A conceptual model
(b) An internal model
(c) A logical model
(d) None of the above is correct

21. What SQL command can be used to add columns
to a table ?
(b) MODIFY TABLE Name ADD Column Name
(d) None of the above is correct
22. Which term identifies a specific computer on the Web and the main page of the entire site?
(a) URL
(b) Web site address
(c) Hyperlink
(d) Domain name
(e) None of these

23. It contains specific rules and words that express
The logical steps of an algorithm
(a) Programming language
(b) Syntax
(c) Programming structure
(d) Logic chart
(e) None of these

24. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key,first
(a) Drop the primary key
(b) Drop the table containing the foreign key
(c) Drop the foreign key constraint
(d) All of the above must be done

25. Chip is a common nickname for a (an)
(a) transistor
(b) Resistor
(c) Integrated circuit
(d) Semiconductor
(e) None of these

Computer Model Test Paper For SBI Clerk Exams.

Computer Model Test Paper For SBI Clerk Exams.
Practice Computer Test Paper
1. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called
(1) Upgrading
(2) Processing
(3) Batching
(4) Utilizing
(5) None of these

2. …….is the process of finding errors in software code.
(1) Compiling
(2) Testing
(3) Running
(4) Debugging
(5) None of these

3. Changing an existing document is called ......
the document.
(1) Creating
(2) Editing
(3) Modifying
(4) Adjusting
(5) None of these

4. Computers use the ......... number system to
store data and perform calculations.
(1) Decimal
(2) Hexadecimal
(3) Octal
(4) Binary
(5) None of these

5. One thousand bytes is a
(1) Kilobyte
(2) Megabyte
(3) Gigabyte
(4) Terabyte
(5) None of these

6. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press
the ......... key.
(1) Home
(2) A
(3) Page up
(4) Enter
(5) None of these

7. Which groupings do you work with when formatting text in Word ?
(1) Tables, paragraphs and indexes
(2) Paragraphs, indexes and sections
(3) Characters, sections and paragraphs
(4) Indexes, characters and tables
(5) None of the above

8. The ......... tells the computer how to use its
(1) Utility
(2) Network
(3) Operating system
(4) Application program
(5) None of these

9. What kind of software manages the computer
processes functioning in the form of interphone,
connecting the application software ?
(1) System software
(2) Utility program
(3) Translator program
(4) Operating system
(5) None of these

10. The thing which easily understands the instructions is called ..........
(1) User friendly
(2) Information
(3) Word processing
(4) Icon
(5) None of these

11. ….. is a combination of hardware and software which provides the facility of
exchanging information between the computing devices.
(1) Network
(2) Peripheral
(3) Expansion board
(4) Digital device
(5) None of these

12. Term ‘BIT’ is short form of ..........
(1) Megabyte
(2) Binary language
(3) Binary digit
(4) Byte number
(5) None of these

13. Which of the following statements is true ?
(1) Virtual memory is the space on hard drive where operating system starts storing the
data when it is memory-bound
(2) Accessing data from RAM is slower than accessing data from virtual memory
(3) When using the data from virtual memory, operating system builds file named RAM
(4) If a computer is memory-bound, adding more or extra RAM will not solve the problem
(5) None of the above

14. Computers use the -l- number system to store data and perform calculations.
(1) Binary
(2) Octal
(3) Decimal
(4) Hexadecimal
(5) None of these

15. The ALU performs _ operations.
(1) Arithmetic
(2) ASC II
(3) Algorithm-based
(4) Logarithm-based
(5) None of these

16. All of the following terms are related to
spreadsheet software except
(1) Worksheet
(2) Sale
(3) Formula
(4) Virus detection
(5) None of the above

17. …… are the devices which are used for transmitting the data on telecommunication
(1) Drives
(2) Blogs
(3) Modem
(4) Platform
(5) None of these

18. …..are almost billion bytes.
(1) Kilobytes
(2) Bit
(3) Gigabyte
(4) Megabyte
(5) None of these

19. Computers gather data. It means that they allow the users to ......... data.
(1) Present
(2) Input
(3) Output
(4) Store
(5) None of these

20. Which of the following terms is only the
connection of network which can be attached to?
(1) Virtual private network
(2) Internet
(3) Intranet
(4) Extranet
(5) None of the above

21. Repair which is usually available on Internet,
without any charge, for a known software bug is called ..........
(1) Version
(2) Patch
(3) Tutorial
(4) FAQ
(5) None of these

22. …… is a kind of stable memory which holds all the instructions required for the start-up of
computer and it is not erased when the power is stopped.
(1) Network inter phase card
(2) CPU
(3) RAM
(4) ROM
(5) None of the above

23. …. is when the more power-hungry components, such as the monitor and the hard
drive, are put in idle.
(1) Hibernation
(2) Power down
(3) Standby mode
(4) The shutdown procedure
(S) None of the above

24. Hard disk drives are considered________ storage.
(1) Flash
(2) Nonvolatile
(3) Temporary
(4) Nonpermanent
(5) None of these

25. The most common input devices are the ..... and the ......... .
(1) Microphone, printer
(2) Scanner, monitor
(3) Digital camera, speakers
(4) Keyboard, mouse
(5) None of the above

Free Online Computer Science Objective Paper

Free Online Computer Science Objective Paper
Test Paper Computer MCQ Paper
1. Arithmetic Operations
(1) Involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than,
equal to or less than the other item
(2) Sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or
descending order
(3) Use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(4) Include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(5) None of the above

2. Microsoft Word is an example of
(1) An operating system
(2) A processing device
(3) Application software
(4) An input device
(5) None of the above

3. Which is the part of a computer that one can
touch and feel ?
(1) Hardware
(2) Software
(3) Programs
(4) Output
(5) None of these

4. What menu is selected to cut, copy, and paste?
(1) File
(2) Tools
(3) Special
(4) Edit
(5) None of these

5. To make a notebook act as a desktop model, the
notebook can be connected to a ......... which is
connected to a monitor and other devices.
(1) Bay
(2) Docking station
(3) Port
(4) Network
(5) None of these
6. The primary purpose of software is to turn data
(1) Web sites
(2) Information
(3) Programs
(4) Objects
(5) None of these

7. A(n) ......... backup contains a copy of every program, data, and system file on a computer.
(1) Restoration
(2) Bootstrap
(3) Differential
(4) Full
(5) None of these

8. Antivirus software is an example of ..,......
(1) Business software
(2) An operating system
(3) A security utility
(4) An office suite
(5) None of these

9. RAM can be thought of as the _ for the computer’s processor.
(1) Factory
(2) Operating room
(3) Waiting room
(4) Planning room
(5) None of these

10. You use a(n) _ , such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information.
(1) Output device
(2) Input device
(3) Storage device
(4) Processing device
(5) None of these

11. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is
(1) CPU
(2) Memory
(3) Storage
(4) File
(5) None of these

12. An e-mail account includes a storage area, often called a(n)
(1) Attachment
(2) Hyperlink
(3) Mailbox
(4) IP address
(5) None of these

13. A collection of related files is called as
(1) Character
(2) Field
(3) Database
(4) Record
(5) None of these

14. Storage that retains its data after the power is
turned off is referred to as
(1) Volatile storage
(2) Non-volatile storage
(3) Sequential storage
(4) Direct storage
(5) None of the above

15. A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function more
efficiently is a/ an _
(1) Windows
(2) System Software
(3) DBMS
(4) Application Software
(5) None of the above

16.Which of the following is an example of connectivity ?
(1) Internet
(2) Floppy disk
(3) Power cord
(4) Data
(5) None of these

17. A ....... contains specific rules and words that
express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(1) Syntax
(2) Programming structure
(3) Programming language
(4) Logic chart
(5) None of the above

18. The ......... key will launch the Start button.
(1) Esc
(2) Shift
(3) Windows
(4) Shortcut
(5) None of these

19. Virtual memory is .........
(1) Memory on the hard disk that the CPU uses as extended RAM
(2) In RAM
(3) Only necessary if you do not have any RAM in your computer
(4) A backup device for floppy disks
(5) None of the above

20. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?
(1) GB
(2) KB
(3) MB
(4) TB
(5) None of these

21. When sending an e-mail, the ......... line
describes the contents of the message.
(1) To
(2) Subject
(3) Contents
(4) CC
(5) None of these

22. The part of CPU which coordinates the activities
of all other components of the computer is
(1) Mother Board
(2) Coordination Board
(3) Control Unit
(4) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(5) None of the above
23. …….fields store the numbers used for calculation in database.
(1) Next
(2) Key
(3) Alphanumeric
(4) Numeric
(5) None of these

24. To save an existing file with new name or on new
location you should use ……….command.
(1) Save
(2) Save and replace
(3) Save as
(4) New file
(5) None of these

25. Information kept about a file includes.
(1) Print settings
(2) Deletion date
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Size
(5) None of the above

Psychology Online Practice Sample Paper

Psychology Online Practice Sample Paper
Objective Question Solved Test
1 The anxiety one suffers at the time of going for an examination is called
(a) Test anxiety
(b) Trait anxiety
(c) State anxiety
(d) Anxiety neurosis
Ans. (a)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Defence mechanism of ego)
A. Repression
B. Regression
C. Displacement
D. Rationalization

List-II (Basic Nature)
1. Responding to a threatening situation in a way appropriate to an earlier age or level
of development.
2. Redirecting an emotional response from a dangerous object to a safe one
3. Conjuring up socially acceptable reasons for thoughts or actions based on
unacceptable motives
4. “Forgetting or consciousness into unconsciousness unacceptable thoughts

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (b)

3. According to Freud’s psychosexual stages of development fixation at anal stage, stemming from overly harsh toilet-training experiences, may result in individuals, who
(a) Are excessively orderly or compulsive
(b) Cannot leave any job unfinished
(c) Strive, for perfection and neatness in everything
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

4. According to Freud, Oedipus complex is
(a) A crisis of psychosexual development in which children must give up their sexual attraction to their opposite-sex parent
(b) A tendency of aggression
(c) Fixation
(d) Desire to kill the parent of opposite sex
Ans. (a)

5. According to Freud:
(a) All human beings pass through a series of discrete psychosexual stages of development

(b) At each stage, pleasure is focused on a particular part of the body
(c) Too much or too little gratification at any stage can result in fixation and can lead to psychological disorders
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

6. Neo-Freudians, are the personality theorists who
(a) Accepted basic portions of Freud’s theory but rejected or modified other portions
(b) Perceived personality as stemming from a complex interplay between social factors and the experiences we have during childhood
(c) Served as a kind of bridge between the provocative views offered by Freud and more modern conceptions of personality
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

7. Social learning theory suggests:
(a) The likelihood that a given behaviour will occur in a specific situation depending on the individual’s expectancies concerning the outcomes the behaviour will produce
(b) Individuals form generalized expectancies concerning the extent to which their own actions determine the outcome they experience
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Julian Rotter never proposed social learning theory
Ans. (c)

8. A general introduction to psychoanalysis is written by:
(a) Sigmund Freud
(b) Anne Freud
(c) William James
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

9. The main difference between ……… and Carl Gustav Jung is that Jung thinks childhood psychosexual development is not very important to adult adjustment.
(a) Skinner
(b) Maslow
(c) Freud
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

10. Which of the following can be viewed as a homeostatic mechanism?
(a) Hunger
(b) Thirst
(c) Sex
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)

11. People are always struggling to overcome their feelings of inferiority and this struggle is the most basic life urge of them; this is the view of:
(a) Sigmund Freud
(b) Carl Gustav Jung
(c) Alfred Adler
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

12. Fixation at Freud’s anal stage of development stemming from very relaxed toilet training may result in people who are
(a) Undisciplined
(b) Impulsive
(c) Excessively generous
(d) All of the, above
Ans. (d)

13. Externals, in Rotter’s term, are individuals, who believe that:
(a) They have little control over the outcomes they experience
(b) They can change the world according to their wishes
(c) They have full control over the outcomes
(d) They have a respectable place in society
Ans. (a)

14. According to Bandura’s social cognitive theory
(a) Human behaviour is influenced by many cognitive factors
(b) Human behaviour is influenced by reinforcement contingencies
(c) Human beings have an impressive capacity to regulate their own actions
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

15. Which of the following endocrine glands releases sugar stored in the liver to maintain the proper balance of sugar in the blood?
(a) Pituitary
(b) Pancreas
(c) Adrenal
(d) Thyroid
Ans. (b)

16. Jung defined a …… a network of ideas bound together by a common emotion or set of feelings.
(a) Dream
(b) Complex
(c) Thought
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following variables influence hypothalamic control of immediate appetite?
(a) Blood — sugar level
(b) Stomach fullness
(c) Body temperature
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

18. …….. stressed the concepts of compensation and over compensation, the pursuit of activities designed to make up for or to overcome inferiority.
(a) Alfred Adler
(b) Carl Gustav Jung
(c) Sigmund Freud
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

19. Who is the author of Feminine Psychology?
(a) Sigmund Freud
(b) Alfred Adler
(c) Karen Homey
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

20. ……… said basic anxiety is whit arises in childhood when the child feels helpless in a threatening world.
(a) Freud
(b) James
(c) Horney
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

21. The hormones responsible for development and functioning of the reproductive organs are controlled by the
(a) Thymus gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Adrenal gland
(d) Parathyroid gland
Ans. (b)

22. When a new baby is the centre of attention, an older child may become Jealous; prevented from harming the baby, the child demolishes a doll-this is an example of:
(a) Displacement
(b) Regression
(c) Sublimation
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

23. Depressed persons should show reduced activity in the _____ regions, while anxious person should show increased activity in these regions.
(a) Right posterior
(b) Right anterior
(c) Left posterior
(d) Left anterior
Ans. (a)

24. In the face of a threat, one may retreat to an earlier pattern of adaptation, possibly a childish or primitive one, this is called:
(a) Displacement
(b) Regression
(c) Sublimation
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

25. …….. suggests integrity means to integrate one’s attitudes, beliefs, motives and experiences in such a way that they fit together comfortably and form a coherent whole:
(a) Freud
(b) Erikson
(c) Jung
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

Physical Geology Objective Model Test Paper

Physical Geology Objective Model Test Paper
Geology Practice Sample Paper
Q. 1: The formation of gypsum from unhydrite is a good example of:
(a) Oxidation
(b) Hydrolysis
(c) Hydration
(d) None of these.
Answer ( C)

Q2: Spheroidal weathering is more pronounced in :
(a) Arid regions
(b) Arctic regions
(c) Humid climate ¢
(d) None of these
Answer (a)

Q. 3: Basalt on weathering results in the formation of:
(a) Black cotton soil
(b) Chernozen
(C) Lateritic soil
(d) Loamy soil.
Answer (A )

Q. 4: The process of Erosion includes:
(a) Disintegration
(b) Transportation
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these.
Answer (C)

Q. 5: Frost action takes place due to;
(a) Crystal growth
(b) Freezing of water
(c) Exfoliation
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)

Q. 6: In exfoliation which process plays an important role:
(a) Oxidation
(b) Hydration
(c) Carbonation,
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)

Q. 7 : The process of disintegration and decomposition is called :
(a) Weathering
(b) Denudation
(c) Transportation
(d) Siltation.
Answer (a)

Q. 8: Which rays keep us warm:
(a) Gamma rays
(b) X - rays
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Infrared rays.
Answer (D)

9 : The y and x - rays are absorbed by :
(a) Ozone layers
(b) Lonosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Exosphere.
Answer ( B)

Q. 10: Which are two major constituents of the atmosphere:
(a) O2 and CO2
(b) O2 and N2
(c) O2 and H2
(d) O2 and S02
Answer ( B)

Q 11: Choose the correct statement about troposphere:
(a) The thickness of the troposphere is the greatest at the equator.
(b) lt is densest of the all the layers.
(c) lt is responsible for creating ,the climatic and weather conditions on the earth’s surface.
(d) All the correct.
Answer (D)

Q. 12: Kennelly - Heaviside layers in the atmosphere refer to:
(a) Ozonosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Lonosphere.
Answer (C )

Q. 13: Mount Everest is composed of :
(a) Granites
(b) Gneisses
(c) Limestone
(d) Sandstones.
Answer (C)

Q. 14: The regional uplift without marked deformation refers to :
(a) Orogenic
(b) Eperogenic
(c) Epigene
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)

15: The Deccan platen is the result of :
(a)Control type eruption
(b) Issure type eruption
(d) One of above.
Answer ( B)

Q. 16: A volcano which has not erupted for a long time is called as :
(a) Active volcano
(b) Domiant volcano
(C)Extinct volcano
(d)Dead volcano.
Answer (B)

17: Plugdome are also known as:
(a) Homobs
(b)Cinder cones
(c) Lava cones
(d)None of these.
Answer ( C)

18 The mostvoilent type of volcano is known as :
(a)Pelean type
(b)Hawaiian type
(c)Strambilian type
(d)Vesuvian type.
Answer (a)

Q. ‘19 : Lava-tunnels are formed due :
(a) Water action
(b) Fracturing
(c) Gaseous effect
(d) Drain of lava out through weak spots
Answer (D)

Q. 20: The erruption nature of the volcano depend upon :
(a) Temperature
(b) Viscosity of the magma
(c) Amount of dissolved gases
(d) All the above.
Answer (D)

Q. 21: The welded tuffs are known as:
(a) Agglomerates
(b) Lgnimbrite
(c) Nunatak
(d) Lnselberg.
Answer (B)

Q.22 :The spilitic lavas are :
(a) Potash rich lava
(b) Soda rich lava
(c) Calcium rich lava
(d)Iron rich lava.
Answer ( B )

Q. 23: Which is the only active volcano in the Indian subcontinent, lying in the Andaman
sea :
(a) Narcondam
(b) Koh-i-sultan
(c) Barren Island volcano
(d) Popa island.
Answer (C)

Q. 24 : Vents through which only volcanic gases are ejected are :
(a) Gaer
(b) Crater
(c) Fumaroles
(d) None of these
Answer (C)

Q. 25 : [he clouds of gas and volcanic ash are known as :
(a) Nuee ardent
(b) Col.
(c) Bergschrund
(d) None of these.
Answer (A )

Geology MCQ Test paper

Geology MCQ Test paper
Solved Geology Test Paper
Q.1: As a whole the density of the earth is :
(a) 5.0
(b) 5.2
(c) 5.5
(d) 6.5
Answer (C )

Q.2 : Which mountain system runs nearly parallel to the equator :
(a) The Alpine - Himalayan mountain system.
(b) The rocky mountain system.
(c) The Appalachian mountain system.
(d) None of the above.
Answer (a)

Q. 3 : The shape of the earth is called '
(a) Sphere
(b) Ellipsoid
(c) Oblate spheroid
(d) Geoidal
Answer (D)

Q. 4 :The distance of the planets from the sun is observed to follow a formula which is
known as : `
(a) Bode’s law
(b) MaIley’s law
(c) Bowen’s law
(d) Airy’s law.
Answer (A )

Q. 5 : Besides earth, the other terrestrial planets are :
(a) Venus, mars, Pluto and mercury.
(b) Mercury, mars, pluto and saturn.
(c) Neptune, pluto, Jupiter and venus
(d) All ofthe above.
Answer (A )

Q.6 : The total number of satellite of the planets of the solar system is :
(a) 12 satellites
(b) 33 satellites
(c) 28 satellites
(d) 30 satellites.
Answer (B)

Q.7: Asteroid are:
(a) Shooting stars
(b) Shining stars nearest to the earth g
(c) Meteorites
(d) A swarm of small bodies between the orbits of mars and Jupiter revolving round the sun
Answer (B)

Q. 8 : The term 'nife' refers to :
(a) Ocean beds
(b) Core of the earth
(c) Crust ofthe earth
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)

Q. 9: The magnetic belt of the earth extends to :
(a) 30,000 km
(b) 64,000 km
,(c) 88,000 km
(d) 110,000 km
Answer (B)

Q. 10: The average thickness of the crust is about :
(a) 33 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 50 km
(d) 62 km
Answer (a)

Q. 11 : Sial and Sima are separated by :
(a) Conared discontinuity
(b) Mohorovic discontinuity
(c) Lehman discontinuity.
(d ) None of these.
Answer (a)

Q. 12 : Between outer core and Inner core which discontinuity is found :
(a) Mohorovicic
(b) Conrad
(c) Repetti
(d) Lehman.
Answer (D)

Q. 13 : The plastic layer of the mantle is called :
(b) Asthenosphere
(c) Barysphere
(d) Hydrosphere.
Answer (B)

Q. 14 : Mantle and core are separated by :
(a) Mohorovicic discontinuity
(b) Repetti discontinuity
(c) Lehman discontinuity
(di Gutenberg discontinuity
Answer (D)

Q. 15 : The average density of the core of the earth is about :
(a)9.0 gm/cm3
(b) 15.2 gm/cm3
(c) 10.7 gm/cm3
(d) 13.4 gm/cm3
Answer (C)

Q. 16: The asthenosphere is found at depths of approximately
(a) 50 to 100 km
(b) 100 to 150 km
(c) 200 to 300 km
(d) 250 to 350 km
Answer ( B)

Q. 17 : The mixture of 3 parts of ultrabasic racks and 1 part of basalt is called :
(a) Eclogite
(b) Amphibole
(c) Pyrolite
(dj) Charnokite
Answer (C)

Q. 18 :Lower continental crust is known as :
(a) Sial
(b) sima
(c) Low mantle
(d) Upper mantle
Answer ( B)

Q. 19 : What is the mean orbital velocity of the earth ':
(a) 29.80 km/sec 1
(b) 18.50 km/sec
(c) 22.50 km/sec ¢
(d) 33.50 km/sec.
Answer (A )

Q. 20 : The tendency for a body moving on the surface of the earth to be deflected to the
right in the northern hemisphere and the left in the southern hemisphere is the result of :
(a) Milankovich effect
(b) Atmospheric effect
(c) Corillis effect
(d) None of these.
Answer (C)

Q. 21 : Choose the correct statement :
(a) Shadow zone is free from P waves only.
(b) Shadow zone is free from S waves only.
(c) Shadow zone is free from P and S waves.
(d) Shadow zone is formed due to intersection P and S waves at 2900 km depth in the earth.
Answer (C)

Q. 22 :`The ratio of the amount of incoming radiation reflected by a natural surface to the
amount incident upon that surface is commonly known as :
(a) Arroyo.
(b) Mare
(c) Albedo
(d) Corona.
Answer ( C )

Q. 23 : Galilean moons are :
(a) Moons -of mars
(b) Moons of Saturn
(c) Moons of Jupiter
(d) Moons of Earth.
Answer ( C)

Q. 24: Mark the correct statement :
(a) Denudation leads to weathering
(b) Weathering leads to erosion.
(c) Erosion leads to denudation.
(d) All are correct.
Answer (D)

Q. 25 : The upper mantle under continents may experience strain because of :
(a) Absolute plate motions
(b) Present day crystal stress
(c) Past and present internal deformation of the continental lithosphere in tectonic episodes.
(d) All the correct.
Answer (D)

Free Online Geology Solved Question Paper

Free Online Geology Solved Question Paper
Practice Test Paper of Geology
Q. 1: The process of weathering leads to :
(a) Loss of silica
(b) Increase in silica
(c) No change in silica
(d) It is uncertain.
Answer (A )

Q. 2: The reaction between water and mineral is called:
(a) Oxidation
(b) Hydration
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) None of these.
Answer ( C )

Q. 3: Orthoclase is decomposed and converted into kaoline under the process of
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Hydration
(c) Carbonation
(d)Both b and c
Answer ( D)

Q. 4: Laterite is formed in:
(a) Tropical climate.
(b) Humid climate
(c) Arid climate
(d) None of these.
Answer (a)

Q.5: The physical weathering may be due to:
(a) Frost action
(b) Crystal growth
(c) Differential expansion
(d) All of the above.
Answer (D)

Q. 6: Which minerals are highly susceptible to chemical weathering :
(a) Feromagnesian minerals
(b) Siliceous minerals
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these.
Answer (a)

Q. 7: Exfoliation process is more active in :
(a) Massive rock mass
(b)Jointed rock mass
(c) Layered rock mass.
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)

8: The ultraviolet rays absorbed by :
(a) Ozone layers
(b) Lonosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Magnetosphere.
Answer (a)

Q. 9: Some of the outgoing rays are absorbed by the atmosphere and re-radiated back to
earth, creating a heat trapping mechanism known as the:
(a) Absorption effect
(b) Thermal effect
(c)'Green house effect.
(d) Radiation effect.
Answer (C)

Q. 10: Atmosphere is held up by the earth because:
(a) The atmosphere is made up of gases.
(b) The atmospheric gases cannot spread in the solar system
(c) The gravitational attraction of the earth.
(d) All the above one correct
Answer (C)

Q. 11: The tropopause is lying between:
(a) Troposphere and stratosphere
(b) Troposphere and mesosphere
(c) Troposphere and lonosphere
(d) Stratosphere and mesosphere.
Answer (a)

Q. 12: Fluorine dating is based on the principle that:
(a) Flouring is absorbed by bones and teeth at a constant rate.
(b) Fluorine compounds deionise continuously at a constant rate.
(c) Fluorine gets oxidised due to atmpspheric action.
(d) Flurine compounds possess the quality of fluorescence which decays at a constant rate
Answer (a)

Q. 13: Magnetosphere extends to about :
(a) 80 km
(b)800 km
(C) 8000 km
(d) 80,000 km
Answer (D)

Q. 14: Carbonation is most vigorous in :
(8) Moist climates
(b) And climate
(c) Tropical climate a
(d) None of the there.
Answer (a)

Q.15: The mountain building with deformation of the earth’s crust refers to
(a) Orogenic
(b) Epeirogenic
(c) Epigene
(d) None of these.
Answer (a)

Q. 16: Folding and faulting takes place during:
(a) Epeirqgenic movement
(b) Orogenic movement
(c) Both of a and b
(d) None of the above.
Answer (B)

17 : A volcano which has stopped eruption over a long period in geological history is
Known as :
(d )None of these.
Answer (C)

18: Explosive type volcano, generally erupts the lava of which nature :
(a)Acidic nature
(b) Basic nature
(c)Intermediate nature
(d) Ultrabasic nature.
Answer (a)

19: Lava of basaltic nature is erupted bye:
(a) Explosive type volcano
(b) Quiet type volcano.
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)

Q. 20: Numerous volcanoes are found around :
(a) Indian ocean
(b) Antarctic ocean
(C) Pacilic Ocean,
(d) Atlantic ocean.
Answer (C)

21: The silent volcanic erruption of lava without any explosive activity is
(a)Hawaiian type y
(b)Vulcan ion type
(c)Pelean type
(d)Vesuvian type.
Answer (a)

Q. .22: A depression located at the centre of the volcanic cone is known as
(a) Creater
(b) Straight
(c) Vent
(d) Moar
Answer (A )

Q. 23: "Qtrato -Volcanoes "_are also known as :
(a) Cinder cones
(b) Lava cones
(c) Composite cones
(d) Hornitos.
Answer (C)

Q. 24: Pyroclastic materials are:
(a) Rock fragments brought by wind.
(b) Rock fragments drived by weathering
(c) Rock fragments ejected during volcanic activity
(c) None of these.
Answer (C)

Q. 25: Scoria differs from pumice because of :
(a) A little dark colour
(b) Coarse texture
(c) Fine texture
(d) Both a and b.
Answer (D)

Model Test Physical Geology Sample Paper

Model Test Physical Geology Sample Paper
Practice Question Paper Geology
Q.1 : The polar and equatorial diameter of tlie earth are :
(a) 12170_ kms and 12755 kms respectively
(b) 12710 km sand 12755 kms respectively
(c) 13612 kms and 13921 kms respectively.
(d) 14012 kms and 14302 kms respectively.
Answer (B)

Q.2: Mark the correct statement: .
(a) There is more water in the northern hemisphere and more land in the southern hemisphere.
(b) There is more land in northern hemisphere and more water in the southern hemisphere.
(c) There is equal land and water in both the hemisphere. '
(d) None of the above.
Answer (B)

Q.3 : The major ocean basins are characterized by :
(a) Deep sea-trenches
(b) Abysmal plains M
(c) Mid-oceanic ridge systems
(d) Both a and b.
Answer (C)
Q.4 : The peculiar shape of the earth is due to :
(a) The combined effects of centrifugal and centripetal.
(b) '|'he rotation of the earth about its axis and revolution around the sun.
(c) The gravitational pull and distribution of light and heavy materials in the interior of the earth.
(d) All the above.
Answer (D)
Q. 5: According to Bode’s law the formula is :
(a) 3 + 3 *3n-1
(b)4 + 3* 2n-1
(C) 4 X 3 + 2n-1
(d) None of the above.
Answer ( B)

Q.6: Mid Atlantic ridge divides the ocean floor of which water body :
(a) Caribbean sea.
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Atlantic ocean
(d) Indian ocean.
Answer ( C)

Q. 7 : Duration of a day at the poles is :
(a) None month
(b) Six month M
(c) Three month
(d) 12 hours.
Answer (B)

Q. 8 : Dog star is :
(a) The nearest plant of the sun. ‘L
Kb) The nearest and the brightest of all the stars of the earth
(c) The farthest planet of the solar system
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)

Q. 9 : Equigravisphere is :
(a) The uppermost layer of atmosphere
(b) Layer ofair beyond mesosphere.
(c) The locus of the point in space where gravity is constant.
(d) None of these.
Answer (C)

Q. 10 : Existence of a number of minor discontinued within the earth may be due to
(a) Changes in the density of the materials
(b) Changes in the chemical composition of the mater
(c) Changes in the physical properties of the minerals
(d) All of the above.
Answer ( D)

Q. 11: Terrestrial planet is :
(a) A low density ball of gas.
(b) A dense rocky body
(C) Fill├ęd with liquid
(d) None of these
Answer (B)

Q. 12: Pyrolite rock is formed in :
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) None of the above.
Answer (B)

Q. 13 : Morhorovicic discontinuity is found between :
(a) Crust and mantle
(b) Mantle and crust
(c) Mantle and core
(d) Outer core and lnnercore.
Answer (a)

Q. 14: Repetti discontinuity is found at :
(a) 850 km depth
(b) 950 km depth
(c) 1100 km depth
(d) 1250 km depth.
Answer (B)

Q. 15 : The temperature in the core of the earth is :
(a) 6000° c
(b) 9,000° C
(C) 1,200°C
(d) 1,400°C.
Answer (a)

Q. 16 : The thickness of the core is about :
(a) 4000 km -
(b) 3471 km
(C) 2515 km
(d) 2010 km
Answer (B)

Q. 17 :Q.. 95 : The chemical union of water with a mineral is called :
(a) Oxidation - ‘
(b) Hydration
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Carbonation
Answer ( B )

Q. 18 : Dahm discontinuity is found at the depth of :
(a)2780 km
(b) 2100 km
(c) 3500 km
(d) 3270 km
Answer (A

Q. 19 : The Earth’s axis is inclined to the perpendicular to the orbital plane by an angle of
(a) 17.5 degrees
(b) 23.5 degrees
(cj 43.5 degrees
(d) 66.0 degrees.
Answer (B)

Q.‘ 20:The cariolils effect is the result of:
(a) Earth’s rotation
(b) Earth’s revolution
(c) Change in season
(d) None of these.
Answer (a)

Q. 21 : The reduction in the seismic wave velocities and density of the mantle-material is
due to :
(a) Thermal expansion
(b) Micro-fracturing
(c) Thermal expansion and micro-fracturing associated with upwelling mantle.
(d) None ofthe above.
Answer (C)

Q. 22 : The apparent outwards force experienced by an object moving in circular path is :
(a) Centripetal force
(b) Centrifugal force
(c) Coriollis force
(d) Gravity force
Answer (B)

Q. 23 : The electromagnetic response of the earth is estimated to be about :
(a) 900 km
(b) 1100 km
(C) 1300 km
(a) 1700 km
Answer (B)

Q. 24: What are the two most abundant minerals of upper mantle :
(a) Olivine and amphiboles
(b) Felspar and quartz
(c) Olivine and orthopyroxeqe
(c) Garnet and Hornblend.
Answer (C)

Q. 25 : The division of the upper layers of the earth into the lithosphere and asthenosphere
is based on :
(a) Seismic characteristics
(b) Gravity difference
(c) Rheidity considerations
(d) Reflection characteristics
Answer (C)

Monday, November 28, 2011

General Awareness Solved Question Paper For All Entrance Test

General Awareness Solved Question Paper For All Entrance Test
GK Practice Model Test Paper
1. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child,
consider the following :
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the Child ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The approximate representation of land use classification in India is
(a) Net area- sown 25% forests 33%; other areas 42%
(b) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%
(c) Net area sown 43%; forests 29%; other areas 28%
(d) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%

3 . Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm ?
(a) Partners should be less than 20
(b) Partnership and management need not be separate
(c) Internal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners
(d) lt is a corporate body with perpetual Succession

4. In India, during the last decade, the total cultivated land for which one of the following
crops has remained more or less stagnant
(a) Rice
(b) Oilseeds
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane

5. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax
revenue has significantly declined in the last five years ?
(a) Service tax
(b) Personal income tax
(c) Excise duty
(d) Corporation tax

6. With reference to Indian economy; consider the following statements :
1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10
2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. The International Development Association. a lending agency, is administered by the
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(c) United Nations Development Programme
(d) United Nations Industrial Development 0rganization

8. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations ?
(a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
(d) Bank for International Settlements

9. With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements :
1. At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other
2. China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs :
Mineral 90% Natural sources in
1. Copper Jharkhand
2. Nickel Orissa
3. Tungsten Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are Correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can
be used for treating oil spills ?
(a) Agro bacterium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Nitrosamines
(d) Pseudomonas
12. ln India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is
fixed by
(a) Union Ministry of Finance
(b) Union Finance Commission
(c) Indian Banks’ Association
(d) None of the above

Directions : For Q No.13-22, The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items
using the code given below :
(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement ll is the correct explanation
of statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct
explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true

13. Statement I : By virtue of a law passed by the Parliament of India in the year 2003, the
people of Indian origin residing in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status.
Statement II : This law enables them to participate in economic activities, cast their
vote or get elected to various legislative bodies in India.

14. Statement I : The principle of equality before the law is not applicable to the
President of India.
Statement Il : The President of India enjoys some special privileges under the
Constitution of India.

15. Statement I : The fundamental rights protect the rights and liberties of the people
against encroachment by the legislative and executive wings of the government.
Statement Il : The fundamental rights guarantee the rights of the citizens.

16. Statement I : India receives the highest share of FDI inflow from Mauritius.
Statement II : There is Double Taxation Avoidance agreement between India and

17. Statement I : Wind is deflected to the right in northern hemisphere and to the left in
southern hemisphere from its normal course.
Statement II : Earth rotates from west to Bail.

18. Statement I : Super phosphate of lime can be assimilated by plants.
Statement II : Super phosphate of lime is soluble in water.

19. Statement I : During the setting of cement the structure has to be cooled by spraying
Statement II : The constituents of cement undergo hydration during setting of cement
and it is an exothermic reaction.

20. Statement I : Most of the east flowing rivers over the Deccan plateau have deltas at their
Statement Il : These rivers have courses through soft rocks of the Deccan plateau.

21. Statement I : Bal Gangadhar Tilak sought to diffuse the spirit of nationalism among the
Statement II : Tilak organized a corps of volunteers to help the famine stricken people
in the Deccan.

22. Statement I : Autotrophy plants contain the pigment chlorophyll for meeting their
requirement of carbon and energy
Statement ll : Photosynthesis is the process of converting water into food using sunlight
and oxygen

23. Man passed from the food gathering stage to the food
producing stage in the :
(a) Paleolithic Age
(b) Mesolithic Age
(c) Neolithic Age
(d) Chalcolithic Age

24. The earliest evidence of silver in India is found in the :
(a) Harappan Culture
(b) Chalcolithic cultures of Western India
(C) Vedic texts
(d) Silver punch-marked coins

25. Out of the following remains excavated in Indus Valley, which one
indicates the commercial and economic development ?
(a) Pottery
(b) Seals
(c) Boats
(d) Houses

Free Online GK Paper Combined Defence Services,NDA & Other Exams

Free Online GK Paper Combined Defence Services,NDA & Other Exams
Sample Test Paper for IAS,UPSC Exams.
1. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the
Following statements is not correct ?
(a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female
(b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually
transmitted infections
(c) An infected mother can transmit the infection to her baby during pregnancy, at
childbirth and by breast feeding
(d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much
higher than are exposure to contaminated needle

2. What ere the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and
in the immediate future ?
1. Appropriate ultimate technologies are not sufficiently available.
2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(al 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Consider the following statements :
1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction/rule/mandate)
automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4.In India, which of the following is regulated by
the Forward Markets Commission ?[ IAS 2010]
(a) Currency Futures Trading
(b) Commodities Futures Trading
(c) Equity Futures Trading
(d) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading

5. With reference to Pondicherry (now Pondicherry), consider the following
statements :
1, The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Consider the following statements :
The functions of commercial banks in India
1. purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
2. acting as executors and trustees of wills.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following statements : ln India, taxes on transactions in Stock
Exchanges and Futures Markets are
1. Levied by the Union
2. Collected by the States
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for
each sugar season.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential
Commodities Act,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere :
1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere? [IAS 2010]
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10. Following are the characteristics of an area in India :
1. Hot and humid climate
2. Annual rainfall 200 cm
3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1 100 metres
4. Annual range of temperature 15 degree C to 30 degree C
Which one among the following crops are
you most likely to find in the area described above ?
(a) Mustard
(b) Cotton
(c) Pepper
(d) Virginia tobacco

11. Consider the following countries :
1. Brazil
2. Mexico
3. South Africa
According to UNCTAD, which of the above
is/are categorized as “Emerging Economies”?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs :
Term Most appropriate
1. Melt down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Which of the following is/are treated as
artificial currency ?
(a) ADR
(b) GDR
(C) son
(d) Both ADR and SDR

14. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of
certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable
manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops ?
(a) Rice and wheat only
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and

15. With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the
following statements is correct ?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces
(b) It proposed the setting up of interprovincial council under the Home Department
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for
increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits it

Directions : For Q 16-25
The following items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items
using the code given below :
(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement ll is the correct explanation
of statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct
explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true

16. Statement I : A myopic person is advised to use concave lens
Statement II : The eye lens of a myopic person focuses the parallel rays coming from
distant objects in front of the retina

17. Statement I : Decay and disintegration of
rocks in situ is called weathering
Statement II : Mechanical weathering is
mainly caused by temperature variation

18. Statement I : The Mediterranean climate is
highly suitable for fruit production
Statement II : Cool and moist winters in
Mediterranean regions enable ample
production of fruits.

19. Statement I : Oxidation in our body cell
releases dangerous free radicals
Statement II : Our body itself produces
anti-oxidants to neutralize harmful free

20. Statement I : The semi-arid tracts of India
stretching from eastern Rajasthan in the north
to south central Tamil Nadu are agriculturally
less productive
Statement II : The semi-arid tracts are
homeland to a large number of central Indian
Scheduled Tribe population

21. Statement I : In the northern hemisphere
the ocean currents flowing from equator
towards the north pole and from pole towards
the equator are deflected to their right
Statement II : This happens due to rotation
of the Earth on the axis from west to east

22. Statement I : Gandhiji failed to realize that
the Khilafat was an extra-territorial issue.
Statement II: The cause of Khilafat was
discredited by 1923 as Mustafa Kemal Pasha
set up a secular republican government in

23. Statement I : In north-western India, the
Civil Disobedience Movement took a mass
character under the leadership of Khan Abdul
Ghaffar Khan.
Statement II : The Nehru Report (1928)
had argued that the ‘next immediate step' for
India must be Dominion Status.

24. Statement I : Adjournment is a short recess
within the session of the Parliament ordered
by the Presiding Officer of the House.
Statement II : When the Presiding Officer
adjourns the House without fixing any date or
time of the next meeting of the House, it is
known as adjournment sine die.

25. Statement I : In Vietnam War, Americans
used powerful defoliants such as Agent
Orange over large areas of dense forest and
agricultural fields.
Statement II : Defoliants are very
dangerous war weapons which leave the
forests and agricultural fields barren.

MCQ Paper General Knowledge Practice paper

MCQ Paper General Knowledge Practice paper
GK Question Paper for all Preliminary Exams.

1. Many a times we read about the priority sector in newspapers. Which of the following
is/are considered segment(s) of Priority Sector in India?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Small Scale Industry
(c) Textile industry
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these

2. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is ............
(1) Iron & steel plants
(2) Roadways
(3) Railways
(4) Airways
(5) None of these

3. The difference between visible exports and
visible imports is defined as
(1) Balance of trade
(2) Balance of payment
(3) Balanced terms of trade
(4) Gains from trade
(5) All the above

4. Which of the following is not a part of the
scheduled banking structure in India ?
(1) Moneylenders
(2) Public Sector Banks
(3) Private Sector Banks
(4) Regional Rural Banks
(5) State Co-operative Banks

5. Many times we read a term CBS used in
banking operation. What is the full form of
the letter ‘C’ in the term ‘CBS’ ?
(1) Core
(2) Credit
(3) Continuous
(4) Complete
(5) None of these

6. The highest weight in the revised Whole Sale Price Index, implemented from September
2010 is given to which of the following item ?
(1) Fuel
(2) Food items
(3) Manufactured items
(4) Primary Articles
(5) All of these

7. In which one of the following activities percentage share of cooperative sector is the
highest ?
(1) Agricultural Credit disbursement
(2) Sugar production
(3) Wheat procurement
(4) Fertilizer distribution
(5) Handlooms

8. Which one of the following is not a member of BASIC ?
(1) India
(2) China
(3) South Africa
(4) Brazil
(5) Indonesia

9. Who amongst the following was never a Govemor of the RBI ?
(1) Bimal Jalan
(2) Y. V. Reddy
(3) Arup Roy Chaudhary
(4) C. Rangarajan
(5) D. Subbarao

10. How many times was the term of the Lok Sabha extended upto 6 years ?
(1) Once
(2) Twice
(3) Thrice
(4) Never

11. Which type of glass is used for making glass reinforced plastic?
(1) Pyrex glass
(2) Flint glass
(3) Quartz glass
(4) Fibre glass

12. The ‘Rediscovery of India’ is written by
(1) Gurcharan Das
(2) Arundhati Roy
(3) Meghnad Desai
(4) Mrinal Pandey

13. ln the world of commodity exchanges-the concept of “A standard contract to buy or sell
a specified commodity at a certain date in future and at a market driven price” - is
known as
(1) Future contract
(2) Forward contract
(3) Market contract
(4) Standard contract
(5) None of these

14. Stock Exchanges play a role in an economy which may be termed as
(1) Hardly useful
(2) Useful but need strict regulation
(3) Harmful to proper capital markets
(4) A gambling-where many investors get ruined
(5) A very important segment to regulate

15. Which of the following is called “grave yard of Dinosaurs” ?
(1) China
(2) Montana
(3) Argentina
(4) Brazil

16. 14 N.E.L.P. Blocks, 1 J.V. Blocks, 2 Nomination Blocks and 4 C.B.M, Blocks are
related to
(1) Gypsum belt
(2) Gold belt
(3) Petroleum Exploration
(4) Lignite belt

17. With reference to soil conservation, consider
the following practices :
1. Crop rotation
2. Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in
India ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

18. With reference to the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in india, consider the
following statements :
1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the Government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of
Malacca ?
(a) Bali
(b) Brunei
(c) Java
(d) Singapore

20. A geographic region has the following distinct
characteristics :
1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
3. Evergreen oak trees
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following
regions ?
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Eastern China
(c) Central Asia
(d) Atlantic coast of North America

21. ln the context of lndia’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with
lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in [IAS 2010]
(a) Fourth Plan
(b) Sixth Plan
(c) Eighth Plan
(d) Tenth Plan

22. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also
pass through
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu & Kashmir

23. Which one of the following processes in the
bodies of living organisms is a digestive process ?
(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
(b) Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water
(c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
(d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins

24. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult ? [IAS 2010]
(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Tukaram
(c) Tyagaraja
(d) Vallabhacharya

25. Consider the following statements:
1. Hepatitis-B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS
2. Hepatitis-B can cause liver cancer
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(al 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Saturday, November 26, 2011

Free Objective Solved Question on Geology

Free Objective Solved Question on Geology
Geology MCQ Practice Solved Questions
Q.1 : The magnetic theory for the origin of the earth was proposed by :
(a) Moulton and chamberlin
(b) Kant and laplace
(c) Prof. F. Hoyle
(d) G.P. Kuiper.
Answer ( C)

Q.2 : The Big-band theory has been given for:
(a) Origin of the Earth
(b) lsostasy
(c) Plate-tectonics
(djl Earthquake
Answer (A )

Q. 3 : The material is pulled out of the sun by an external force refers to :
(a) Evolutionary theories
(b) Catastrophic theories
(c) cosmic theories
(d) None of the above.
Answer (B )

Q.4 : Choose the correct statements regarding black hole :
(a) lt is a result of compression and collapse of matter.
(b) lt is an area whose gravitational tield is so strong that nothing can escape from it.
(c) Gravitational forces are infinitely strong along the edges of a-blackhole.
(d) All are correct.
Answer ( D)

Q.5 : The fastest planet in the solar system is :
(a) Neptune
(b) Pluto
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer (B)

Q. 6 : The atmosphere of early period was rich in :
(a) O2, CO2 and N2
(b) O2 and CO2
(c) CO2, methane and nitrogen
(d) O2, CO2 and SO2.
Answer (C)

Q. 7 : What is the maximum concentration of ozone in the ozone layer:
(a) 0.1 ppm
(b) 0.2 ppm
(c) 0.5 ppm
(d) 0.8 ppm
Answer (C)
Q. 8 : Which ultraviolet rays are most harmful for the human beings :
(a) Ultraviolet - A
(b) Ultraviolets - B
(c) Ultraviolets - C
(d) All the above.
Answer (B)

Q.9: To determine age_ of the Earth, the fine sedimentary deposits of gracial origin are
used in :
(a) Carve clock method
(b) Sedimentation - clock method
(c) Salinity-clock method.
(d) None of the above.
Answer (a)

Q.10 : A thin sedimentary layer or pair of contrasting layers that represent the depositional
record of a single year is called :
(a) Venturi fact
(b) Verve
(c) Arete
(d) None of the above.
Answer (B)

Q. 11 :,Joly calculated the age of the earth by salinity-clock method as :
(a) 10 m.y.
(b) 100 m.y.
(c) 1000 m.y.
(d) None of the above.
Answer (B)

Q. 12 : The age of the earth has been estimated from lead ratios in materials is :
(a) About 3600 m.y.
(b) About 4600 m.y.
(c) About 5300 m.y.
(d) About 5500 m.y.
Answer ( B )

Q.13 : When U whose atomic weight is 238 and atomic number is 92 emitted an alpha
particle, then the daughter element thorium, will have atomic weight and atomic number
respectively: ,
(a) 237 and 92
(b) 236 and 92
(c) 235 and 90
(d) 234 and 90
Answer ( D)

Q.14: The radiation` in radioactive elements is detected by:

(a) Geiger counter
(b) Mass spectrometer
(c) Oscillometer
(d) None of the above.
Answer (A)

Q.15: Which is non-radiogenic lead:

(b) Pb 206
(C) Pb207
(d) Pb208
Answer (A )

Q.16 : How many alpha and beta particles are lost when U32 changes to Pb§2 :
(a) 6 alpha and 8 beta particles.
(b) 8 alpha and 6 beta particles.
(c) 10 alpha and 8 beta particles
(d) 12 alpha and 10 bet' particles.
Answer (B)

Q. 17: The half life of C 14 is:
(a) 5500 yrs
(b) 5570 yrs
(c) 5670 yrs
(d) 5775 yrs.
Answer (B)

Q.18: Which radioactive method is most suitable to determine age of recent formations :
(a) Uranium-lead method. _
(b) Rubidium - strontium method.
(c) Potassium - Argon method.
(d) carbon-14 method.
Answer ( D)

Q. 19: What are the Jovian planets :
(a) Jupiter and Saturn
(b) Jupiter, Saturn and Uranus if
(c) Jupiter, Saturn and Earth
(d) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus’=and Pluto.
Answer (D)

Q. 20 : An ancient, deeply eroded impact feature on the earth’s solid surface produced by a
large meteorite is known as :
(a) Aulacogen
(b) Geoimpact,
(c) Astrobleme
(d) Plays.
Answer (C)