Thursday, August 16, 2018

Govt of India schemes meanings of abbreviations

 Govt of India schemes meanings of abbreviations
Abbreviations  arre used in many places for Government plans.Below are the abbreviations of major plans launched by Central Government of India.

PMJBY:Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
PMSAGY:Prdhan Mantri Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
PMSSY:Pradhan Mantri Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
PMMY:Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
PMSBY:Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
APY:Atal Pension Yojana
PMFBY:Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
PMGSY:Pradhan Mantri Gram Sinchai Yojana
DDUGJY:Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
DDUGKY: Deen Dayal Upadhyay Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
PMKVY:Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
PMGKY:Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana
PMJAY:Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana
PMSMA:Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan
PDUSJY:Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate Yojana
NSTSS: National Sports Talent Search Scheme
SEHAT:Social Endevour For Healthcare And Telemedicine

Tuesday, July 12, 2016

World UN GK for exams

World UN GK for exams
General Knowledge on United Nations
The United Nations Charter was drawn up by the representatives of 50 countries at the United Nations Conference on International Organisation, which met in San Francisco from 25 April to 26 June 1945. The Charter was signed on 26 June 1945 by the representatives of the 50 countries. The United Nations officially came into existence on 24 Oct l945. United Nations Day is celebrated on 24 Oct. each year. Official languages of the UN are: Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish. On the flag is the UN emblem in white centered on a light blue ground. UN Headquarters: First Avenue, UN Plaza, New York City, NY. 10017, USA. Principal Organs of the UN are:
  • General Assembly
  • Secretariat
  • Security Council
  • Trusteeship Council
  • Economic and Social Council and International Court of justice
General Assembly The Assembly consists of the representatives of all the member states. Each state has one vote, but may send 5 representatives. The General Assembly meets at least once in a year. Security Council
  • Security Council consists of 15 members There are five permanent and 10 non-permanent members Non-permanent members are elected for a 2-year term by a two-thirds majority of the General Assembly. The permanent members have the power to veto any move. Retiring members are not eligible for immediate re-election.
  • Permanent Members: China, France, Russia, UK, USA.
Economic and Social Council The Council's Regional Economic Commissions:
  • ECE (Economic Commission for Europe, Geneva);
  • ESCAP (Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific, Bangkok);
  • ECLAC (Economic Commission for Latin America and the Carribbean, Santiago, Chile); ECA (Economic Commission for Africa, Addis Aba ba).
  • ESCWA (Economic Commission for Western Asia, Amman, Jordan).
The International Court of justice There are 15 judges in International Court Head quarters : The Peace Palace, 2517 KJ The Hague, Netherlands. Languages: French and English.
  The Secretariat The Secretariat is composed of the Secretary-General and international staff appointed by him under regulations established by the General Assembly. The Secretary General, the High Commissioner for Refugees and the Managing Director of the Fund are appointed by the General Assembly. HQ : United Nations Plaza, New York, NY 10017, USA.

  United Nations Development Programme United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), is the world's largest agency for multilateral, technical and pre-investment co-operation.
 HQ: New York

  High Commissioner for Human Rights The post was established in 1993. The Commission has 53 members.
United Nations Children's Fund United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF), established in 1946 as United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund . Doing development activities aimed at improving the quality of life for children and mothers in developing countries.
HQ: New York
  The UN Fund for Population Activities The UN Fund for Population Activities (UNFPA) was established in 1969 with aims to build up capacity to respond to needs in populaton and family planning.

UN Environment Programme(UNEP) UN Environment Programme(UNEP) was Established in 1972, it works to encourage sustainable development through sound environmental practices.
International Atomic Energy Agency(IAEA) International Atomic Energy Agency(IAEA) was established on 29 july 1957
HQ : Vienna International Centre, P Box 100, A-1400 Vienna, Austria.

United Nations Industrial Development Organisation United Nations Industrial Development Organisation (UNIDO), provides advice on all aspects of industrial policy. Converted into a specialised agency of UN in 1985.
HQ: Vienna International Centre, P.O.Box 300, A-1400 Vienna, Austria.

  United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) was established by the UN General Assembly with effect from 1 jan. 1951. UNHCR was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1955 and again in 1981.
 HQ : Palais de Nations, 1211, Geneva 10, Switzerland.

RRB Reasoning Quantitative aptitude /Maths  previous questions based on RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam

RRB Reasoning Quantitative aptitude /Maths  previous questions based on RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam
RRB exams typically have  questions on 
Indian geography
World geography
Current GK
English Language
here is the previous paper
Directions(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?
(B) GB
(D) None of these

2. Who is second to the D’s left?
(D) Data insufficient

3. Who is third to the G’s left?

4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?
(D) Data insufficient

5. What is the place of ˜B’ with reference to D ?
(I) Fourth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV
English language
Directions”(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?
(B) Apologise
(D) Apollogise
(A) Destinguishably
(B)     Distenguishably
(C)     Distinguishably
(D)     Disifinguishably
(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement

Directions”(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked”
(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called ”
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous

Directions(Q. 11-15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.
(B) End
(D) Conclusion
12.     DISCLOSE
(A)     Express
(B) Reveal
(D) Blackmail

(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail

(A)     Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit

(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced
16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?

(A) 0.102 m
(B) 1 m
(D) 32m

17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are”
(A)     2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r

18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?
(8) 4,000
(D) 10,000

19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted
(A)     150
(B)     200
(C)     400
(D)     500

20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?
(B) 30
(D) 60

21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210 and Rs.6

22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets”
(B) 73
(D) 57

23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?
(A)     46
(B)     64
(C)     38
(D)     21

24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?
(B) 120
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?
(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.

26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?
(B) 8
(D) 9

27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?
(B) 31m
(D) 24m

28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?
(B) 4%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?
(B) 60°
(D) 120°

30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss
(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit

31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks”
(B) 610
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?
(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?
(B) 25
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?
(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?
(A)     165
(B)     120
(C)     135
(D)     105

36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?
(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?
(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h

39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets
(B) 178
(D) None of these

40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?
(B) 221
(D) None of these


Monday, July 11, 2016

Free Political Science MCQ Test

Free Political Science MCQ Test
Free Question Bank on Political Science.

1.Which of the following are the functions of the Supreme Court of India?

(i) Protection of Fundamental Rights of Citizens

(i) Judicial Review

(iii) Grant of clemency to condemned prisoners

(iv) Arbitration between states and states and the centre


(i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(i) and (iii) are correct

(i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

(iii) and (iv) are correct

Ans :C

2. Who among the following made the greatest contribution to the application of Marxism?





Ans :B

3.Under what circumstances can the Indian President proclaim emergency according to article 352 of the Constitution?

(i) External Aggression

(ii) Armed Rebellion

(iii) Instability of Government

(iv) Financial Crisis


(i) and (ii)

(i) and (iii)

(ii) and (iv)

Only (i)

Ans :A

4.The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn because of ?

Its objectives were achieved

It indicated people's preference to use violence

The British Government agreed to negotiate with the Indian leaders

None of the above

Ans :B

5.Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Indira Gandhi Total Revolution

Mahatma Gandhi Trusteeship

Balwant Rai Mehta Democratic Decentralisation

Vinoba Bhave Anushasan Parva

Ans :A

6.Which theory believes that state originates in war?

Social contract theory

Force theory

Divine theory

Evolutionary theory

Ans :B

7.Who among the following can participate in the proceedings of the both Houses of the Parliament?

Chief Justice of Supreme Court




Ans :D

8.The ideal condition for the success of parliamentary system  is

One dominant party

Two-party system

Single-party system

Multiple party system


9.Indian Constitution does not clearly provide for the Freedom of Press but this freedom is implicit in the Article.





Ans :A

10.The thinkers of which country have common tendency to entrust sovereignty to an organ of the government.





Ans :A

11.Assertion (A) : India is a union of destructible states.

Reason (R) : States have no control over the Constitution.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(A) is false but (R) is true

Ans :B

12.Who among the following Marxist thinkers has been described as  genius theoretician?





Ans :B

13.Who among the following is the author of the book, New India?


R. C. Majumdar

Annie Besant

Madan Mohan Malaviya

Ans :C

14.The emphasis of Indian federation is on ?

Division of powers

Strength of states

Compromise with nationalities

Unity of the nation

Ans :D

15.Assertion (A) : The contractualists explanation of the origin of the state is incorrect.

Reason (R) The contractualists fail to cite any exact date of the contract.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct expla nation of (A)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(R) is true but (A) is false

Ans :A

16.The central point of social contract theory is that the state is

A man made institution




Ans :A

17. In which of the following countries has one party system ?





Ans :D

18.The historic Lucknow session, (1916) of the Indian National Congress was presided over by

Mrs. Annie Besant

S. N. Banerjee

Madan Mohari Malaviya

A. C. Majumdar

Ans :D

19.Which institution in a federal system is called Balancing Wheel of the Constitution?





Ans :C

20.Who is of the view that the sovereign cannot tax his subjects without their consent?





Ans :A

21.Who said that, “State is an organ of class rule, an organ for the oppression of one class by another class ?





Ans :A

22.Who is the dejure sovereign in a parliamentary form of government?

Prime Minister



Supreme Court

Ans :C

23.According to Marx, the state came into being to

Make life better

Protect life and liberty

End exploitation of the poor

Legalize exploitation of the poor by the state

Ans :D

24.Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available only to Citizens in India?

Equality before the law

Equality of opportunity (in matter of public employment)

Freedom of religion

Right against exploitation

Ans :B

25.Which one of the following is not correct about the Lok Sabha?

Representation is based on population

Two members may be nominated by the President from the Anglo-Indian Community

States are divided into territorial constituencies for the purpose of election

33% seats are reserved for women

Ans :D

26.The President of India can exercise his veto power in respect of ?

All the bills passed by the Parliament

Constitution-amending bills only

Money bills only

Ordinary bills only

Ans :D

27.Which of the following does not fall within the purview of ordinance making power of the President?

Enactment of a new law

Imposition of a new tax

Passing of the budget

Amendment of the Constitution

Ans :D

28.Who among the following maintains that persons carried into the state their natural rights from the state of nature?




None of the above

Ans :B

29.The socialist thinkers favour nationalisation of natural resources with a view?

To reduce the cost of production

To increase production

To avoid exploitation

To ensure their full utilization

Ans :C

30.Which one of the following has enhanced its power most from the system of delegated legislation?

The Legislature

The Legislative Committees


The Council of Ministers

Ans :C