Monday, April 30, 2012

Psychology Question Paper For IAS Civil Services Exams

Psychology Question Paper For IAS Civil Services Exams
IAS  Psychology Practice Paper

1. The idea of ‘levels of processing’ is given by ………. .
(a) Craik & Lockhart (1972)
(b) Tulving (1972)
(c) Quillian (1966)
(d) Sternberg (1966)
Ans. (a)

2. We forget because learning new things interferes with our memory of what we learned earlier, is example of ……….. .
(a) Retrieval
(b) Decay
(c) Interference
(d) Motivation
Ans. (c)

3. Auditory register holds information, upto about ……… .
(a) 4 or 5 seconds
(b) 5 or 6 seconds
(c) 6 or 7 seconds
(d) 7 or 8 seconds
Ans. (a)

4. The symptoms of primary degenerative dementia begin in ………….. .
(a) Old age
(b) Middle age
(c) Young age
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)

5. The inability to encode and store new information in memory is known as ……….. .
(a) Dream Amnesia
(b) Defensive Amnesia
(c) Childhood Amnesia
(d) Anterograde Amnesia
Ans. (d)

6. Without any known brain malfunction, amnesias result from major disturbances in the process of information encoding, storage
        and retrieval is known as ………… .
(a) Psychological amnesia
(b) Dream amnesia
(c) Biological amnesia
(d) Defensive amnesia
Ans. (a)

7. The technique which is used in short-term memory (STM) experiment is known as ………… .
(a) Free recall
(b) Recall
(c) Recognition
(d) Rehearsal
Ans. (a)

8. An encoding process, a storage process and a …………. have been identified as the process of memory.
(a) Retrieval process
(b) Information process
(c) Cognitive process
(d) Memory process
Ans. (a)


9. The process through which information coming from senses is “transformed, reduced, elaborated, recovered, and used”, is
         …………. .
(a) Recognition
(b) Recall
(c) Cognition
(d) Memory
Ans. (c)

10. Techniques for improving memory are termed as ……….. .
(a) Mnemonics
(b) Loci
(c) Imagining
(d) Chunking
Ans. (a)

11. A form of primary degenerative dementia characterised by progressive mental deterioration is named ……… .
(a) Korsakoff syndrome
(b) Alzheimer’s disease
(c) Multiple Sclerosis
(d) Brain tumors
Ans. (b)


12. Memories which can last for days, months, years or even a life time are stored in …………. .
(a) Short-term memory
(b) Long-term memory
(c) Semantic memory
(d) Episodic
Ans. (b)

13. ………… . memory contains words, sentences, ideas, concepts and the life experiences which we have.
(a) Short-term
(b) Long-term
(c) Semantic
(d) Episodic
Ans. (b)

14. Which of the following colors’ is not included in the category of hues?
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Grey
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

15. Who demonstrated that economic deprivation affects perception?
(a) Broota and Ganguli
(b) Bruner and Goodman
(c) Segall
(d) Hers kovits
Ans. (b)

16. Misperceptions resulting from misinterpretation of information received by our sensory organs are known as
(a) Delusions
(b) Illusions
(c) Hallucinations
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

17. Who among the following has defined perception as a complex of sensory and
imaginal elements?
(a) Kimbel
(b) Titchener
(c) Bruner
(d) Schafer
Ans. (b)

18. The process of converting physical energy into nervous-system activity is called
(a) Transduction
(b) Transformation
(c) Transplantation
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

19. The term generator potential refers to
(a) The electrical event that bypasses nerve impulses
(b) The electrical event that triggers nerve impulses
(c) Non-electrical event that triggers nerve impulses
(d) Electrical event that triggers neurons
Ans. (b)

20. Consider the following statements
I. Brightness is a major dimension of visual experience
2. Other things being equal, the intensity of the physical stimulus is the major determiner of brightness sensations
3. The dimension of brightness extends from black to white and through various shades of grey
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

21. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The experience of pitch depends upon the place at which the organ of Corti is most stimulated
(b) The afferent code for the pitch of higher frequencies is largely a spatial one
(c) For frequencies above 1500 hertz pitch depends upon the fact that different portions of the organ of code n the basilar membrane are maximally stimulated by different frequencies
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

22. The most important Binocular cue comes from the fact that
(a) The two eyes receive slightly different views of the world
(b) The two eyes receive the same view of the world
(c) There is retinal parity
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

23. The stability of the environment as we perceive it is termed as
(a) Perceptual constancy
(b) Perceptual stability
(c) Perceptual vision
(d) Perceptual organization\
Ans. (a)

24. If a person stares at, or fixates on, a small stationary spot of light in a completely dark room, the spot will eventually appear to move. This can be explained, in terms of the
(a) Induced movement
(b) Autokinetic effect
(c) Stroboscopic motion
(d) Real motion
Ans. (b)

25. __________is the time in the early development of a person or animal during which the environment has its greatest effection behaviour or on the brain processes underlying behaviour
(a) Plasticity
(b) Deprivation
(c) Sensitive period
(d) Visual period
Ans. (c)

UPSC, IAS Pre. Psychology Sample Quiz

UPSC, IAS Pre. Test Psychology Sample Quiz
 Psychology Model Test Paper

1. Which of the following tasks is used for the study of semantic memory in the laboratory setting?
(a) Lexical decision
(b) Symbolic comparison
(c) Sentence verification
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

2. Short-term memory is also known as:
(a) Iconic memory
(b) Working memory
(c) Echoic memory
(d) Sensory memory
Ans. (d)

3. Which of the following amnesia results in temporary loss of retrieval capacity?
(a) Organic Amnesia
(b) Retrograde Amnesia
(c) Transient Amnesia
(d) Anterograde Amnesia
Ans. (b)

4. Partial or complete loss of memory is called:
(a) Agnosia
(b) Atasia
(c) Amnesia
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

5. “The forgetting in all cases is proved to be founded on a motive of displeasure” is a quotation of Sigmund Freud’s famous book
          ……… .
(a) The interpretation of Dream
(b) The psychopathology of everyday life
(c) Improving your memory
(d) Human Memory: Structures and Processes
Ans. (b)

6. Memory trace in brain is called ………… .
(a) Flash bulb
(b) Engram                                                                 
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)


7. Forgetting caused by the prior learning of other material is called ……………. .
(a) Interference
(b) Retroactive interference
(c) Proactive interference
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)

8. The better recall at the beginning of the list which contributes to the serial-position effect is known as ………… .
(a) Recency effect
(b) Serial position effect
(c) Primary effect
(d) Free recall
Ans. (b)

9. One of the most prominent-theory about the information-processing was developed by …………. .
(a) Buckout, R. (1974)
(b) Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968)
(c) Neisser, U. (1982)
(d) Estes & Taylor (1966)
Ans. (b)

10. People use strategies that give meaning and organisation to the material so that it can be fitted in with existing organised long
        -term memories, through ……….. .
(a) Elaborative rehearsal
(b) Maintenance rehearsal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

11. ………… are modifications of already stored input.
(a) Reconstructive processes
(b) Constructive processes
(c) Retroactive processes
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

12. Short-term Memory (STM) is memory that holds information received from the sensory register for upto ……… seconds.
(a) 29
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 40
Ans. (b)

13. Imagining a place such as a building or room and then associating ideas to be remembered with parts of the building or items of
        furniture in the room, is an example of
(a) Method of Loci
(b) Chunking
(c) Imagining
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

14. A term that refers to the poor memory we have of our lives in our early years is called …………. .
(a) Dream Amnesia
(b) Defensive Amnesia
(c) Childhood Amnesia
(d) Amnesia
Ans. (c)

15. ‘Amnesia’ is a classified into two parts. First is Psychological amnesia and second is …………. .
(a) Biological amnesia
(b) Physiological amnesia
(c) Defensive amnesia
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

16. Alcohol-induced amnesia may be an example of ……….. .
(a) Dependent memory
(b) State-dependent memory
(c) Independent-memory
(d) State-Independent memory
Ans. (b)

17. An encoding process in which items of informations are grouped together in short- term memory is ………… .
(a) Number and letter peg system
(b) Methods of Loci
(c) Chunking
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

18. A view of cognitive activity stressing the input of information, its transformation, its storage and its eventual output is called
        ……….. .
(a) Information-processing theories
(b) Information-processing theories of memory
(c) Information-processing theories of intelligence
(d) Information-processing theories of attention
Ans. (a)

19. Putting coded information into memory is ………….. .
(a) Retrieval
(b) Encoding
(c) Storage
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

20. Receiving sensory input and transforming it into a form or code, which can be stored, is the process of …………. .
(a) Storage
(b) Encoding
(c) Retrieval
(d) Information
Ans. (b)

21. A type of amnesia which is usually considered to be a way of protecting oneself from the guilt of anxiety that can result from
        intense, intolerable life situations and conflicts, is ………… .
(a) Dream Amnesia
(b) Childhood Amnesia
(c) Defensive Amnesia
(d) Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (c)

22. Who used the “repression” concept to account for childhood amnesia?
(a) Adler
(b) Jung
(c) Hall
(d) Freud
Ans. (d)

23. Difficulty with the retrieval of unpleasant, anxiety-provoking information stored in long term memory is
        called ………. .
(a) Motivated forgetting
(b) Motivational conflict
(c) Motivational cycle
(d) Motive
Ans. (a)

24 ‘Repression’ is the example of ……….. .
(a) Forgetting
(b) Motivated forgetting
(c) Retrieval problems
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)

25. A faint copy of the visual input which persists in the visual sensory register for a few seconds before it gradually decays, is called
        ……….. .
(a) Auditory register
(b) Visual sensory register
(c) Iconic image
(d) Sensory register
Ans. (c)

Bank PO English test Objective Paper

Bank PO English test Objective Paper
English Solved Sample Test

Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best
Expresses the meaning of the word printed in italic bold in the sentence.

1. Vanity is often noticeable in a great leader.
(a) Desirable
(b) Admirable
(c) Remarkable
(d) Visible
ANSWER:(d)

2. It was pure fabrication with an eye for a sensation.
(a) Observation
(b) Wish
(c) Desire
(d) Aim
ANSWER:(d)

3. Public opinion will pillory these agents of crime.
(a) Scorn
(b) Sub serves
(c) Recall
(d) Declare
ANSWER:(a)

4. His adulatory remarks surprised us.
(a) Discreet
(b) Insulting
(c) Appreciate
(d) Funny
ANSWER:(c)

5. The rapacious plunderers did not spare even the people living in the slums.
(a) Warlike
(b) Barbarous
(c) Avaricious
(d) Nomadic
ANSWER:(c)

6. Indian economy has always shown enough resilience in crisis
(a) Diversity
(b) Strength
(c) Elasticity
(d) Adjustment
ANSWER:(c)

7. Long illness has macerated his body. So much so that he is reduced to flesh and bones.
(a) Affected
(b) Eaten into
(c) Devastated 
(d) Wasted away
ANSWER:(b)

8. We walked down a precipitous slope.
(a) Precarious
(b) Steep
(c) Precise
(d) Gradual
ANSWER:(b)

9. Some of the members of the Board indulged in highly scurrilous talk at the meeting.
(a) Irrelevant
(b) Superfluous
(c) Abusive
(d) Objectionable
ANSWER:(c)

10. Decay is an immutable factor of human life.
(a) Important
(b) Unique
(c) Unchangeable
(d) Awful
ANSWER:(c)

11. The cordial talks between the two foreign ministers cover the entire
gamut of their relations.
(a) Territory 
(b) Range
(c) Sphere
(d) Scope
ANSWER:(b)

12. We heard him asseverate his good intentions but his actions belied his words.
(a) Affirm
(b) Incite
(c) Defy  
(d) Cancel
ANSWER:(a)

13. The medicine was aperients.
(a) Bitter
(b) Sweet
(c) Giddy 
(d) Laxative
ANSWER:(d)

14. There must be lively discussion of Indian authors if we are to foster our national literature.
(a) Promote
(b) Cherish
(c) Nourish
(d) Nurture
ANSWER:(a)

15. The problem of unemployment is emasculating our youth from making concrete innovations.
(a) Hindering
(b) Pressurizing
(c) Encouraging
(d) Making weak
ANSWER:(d)

16. The speech was filled with rigmarole.
(a) Nonsense 
(b) Details
(c) Quotes
(d) Examples
ANSWER:(a)

17. The boy gave a vivid description of gall that happened.
(a) Brilliant
(b) Fresh
(c) Explanatory
(d) Picturesque
ANSWER:(d)

18. He was the most disputatious student I ever had.
(a) Scandalous
(b) Argumentative
(c) Uncertain
(d) Opinionated
ANSWER:(b)

19. Most of the staff is restive under the new managers rule.
(a) Relaxed
(b) Friendly
(c) Uneasy
(d) Obstinate  
(e) Discontented
ANSWER:(d)

20. They knew by his sophomoric remarks that he was still knave in the field.
(a) Casual
(b) Unpalatable
(c) Immature
(d) Ignorant
ANSWER:(c)

21. His impertinence and his salacious remarks spoke voliably of his degradation
(a) Rude
(b) Indecent
(c) Distraught
(d) Poor
ANSWER:(b)

22. They all shunned him because he was a lecherous man always looking for an
Opportunity to cheat others.
(a) Cunning
(b) Deceptive
(c) Lustful
(d) Dishonest
ANSWER:(c)

23. After the severe riots, the police continued the curfew lest there was
no recrudescence of disorder.
(a) New outburst
(b) Spread
(c) Exaggeration
(d) Aggravation
ANSWER:(a)

24. The army has laid out an entire web of secret agents to detect the surreptitious
activities of the enemy.
(a) Hostile
(b) Secret
(c) Intriguing
(d) Foppish
ANSWER:(b)

Indian Bank Specialist Officers English Sample Paper

Indian Bank Specialist Officers English Sample Paper
 Free Online English test  for Indian Bank Specialist Officers 

Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best
Expresses the meaning of the word printed in italic bold in the sentence.

1. He was sad that his seniority had been Overlooked.
(a) Rejected
(b) Neglected
(c) Confused
(d) Sidestepped
ANSWER:(b)

2. In his lust for wealth, he had reached the zenith of criminal activity.
(a) Acme
(b) Nadir
(c) Culmination
(d) End
ANSWER:(a)

3. A reliable friend is the gift of God.
(a) Dependable
(b) True
(c) Helpful
(d) Honest
ANSWER:(a)

4. All his colleagues bore an innate reverence for his immaculate character.
(a) Refined 
(b) Pure
(c) Faithful
(d) Splendid
ANSWER:(b)

5. For New Delhi, it is time to re-examine its Pakistan policy and reduce the Suspicion
that it is trying to torpedo the talks.
(a) Attack
(b) Quiet down
(c) Weaken
(d) Refute
ANSWER:(a)

6. To avoid future complications, the boundary between neighbours should be
properly defined.
(a) Limited
(b) Demarcated
(c) Explained
(d) Interpreted
ANSWER:(b)
7. His physician has proscribed non-vegetarian diet.
(a) Recommended
(b) Allowed
(c) Increased
(d) Forbidden
ANSWER:(d)

8. He remonstrated with his father about his decision of donating the entire
Property to the society for the disabled.
(a) Agreed
(b) Felt pleased
(c) Protested
(d) Apologized
ANSWER:(c)

9. This is blatant injustice done to him.
(a) Conceited
(b) Contorted
(c) Openly hostile
(d) Too obvious
ANSWER:(c)

10. It is compulsory for all the students to join this tour.
(a) Regular
(b) Necessary
(c) Dutiful
(d) Obligatory
ANSWER:(d)

11. Some of the discoveries of modern science are simply marvelous.
(a) Praiseworthy
(b) Commendable
(c) Amazing
(d) Admirable
ANSWER:(c)

12. AIDS is a chronic disease.
(a) Incurable
(b) Infectious
(c) Contagious
(d) Deep-rooted
ANSWER:(d)

13. His unscrupulous act would only tantamount to ravage and destruction.
(a) Cause
(b) Result
(c) Equal
(d) Repetitious
ANSWER:(c)

14. It was an ignominious defeat for the team.
(a) Shameful
(b) Unexpected
(c) Unaccountable
(d) Humiliating
ANSWER:(a)

15. His conjecture was better than mine.
(a) Guess
(b) Knowledge
(c) Intuition
(d) Experience
ANSWER:(a)

16. Forgetting their old enmity, they joined hands with a spirit of camaraderie.
(a) Animosity
(b) Love
(c) Friendliness
(d) Trust
ANSWER:(c)

17. All his documents were confiscated.
(a) Cancelled
(b) Seized
(c) Forfeited
(d) Decoyed
ANSWER:(b)

18. Deepak employed my friend only when I agreed to avouch for his honesty.
(a) Vow
(b) Affirm
(c) Pay
(d) Guarantee
ANSWER:(b)

19. We cherish the tradition of bravery.
(a) Imitate
(b) Hold dear
(c) Learn 
(d) Revive
ANSWER:(b)

20. The relics of the Roman rule are still extant in England.
(a) Hidden
(b) Scattered
(c) Existent
(d) Spread
ANSWER:(c)

21. Instead of being arraigned in public, the child should be quietly interviewed in public.
(a) Punished severely
(b) Openly declared
(c) Scolded
(d) Called upon to answer a charge
ANSWER:(d)

22. Last fortnight the rains came to the perched soils of India after the merciless
drought had already sapped the vitality and livelihood of millions of peasants.
(a) Decreased
(b) Demolished
(c) Destroyed
(d) Drained away
ANSWER:(d)

23. Buoyed by these visions of the future of his son, the artist soldiered on.
(a) Continued bravely
(b) Stopped further
(c) Struggled hard
(d) Fought on
ANSWER:(a)

24. A million cinemas a year bring the same stale bladerdash.
(a) Adventure
(b) Nonsense
(c) Thriller
(d) Romance
ANSWER:(b)

25. Whenever I go by that shop, the diamond necklace in the window tantalizes me.
(a) Humiliates
(b) Excites
(c) Teases
(d) Amplifies
ANSWER:(c)

Earth Science Practice Paper For IOCL Test

Earth Science Practice Paper For IOCL Test
Free Online Geology Paper
Q. 1 : The part where the dam comes in contact with the ground
on the upstream side is called :
(a) Heel
(b) Toe
(c) Abutment
(d) Sluice
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 2: The part where the dam comes in contact with the ground on the downstream side is
Called:
(a) Abutment
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Spill way.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 3 : A dam in which entire forces acting on it are directly transmitted to the foundation
rock is known as :
(a) Gravity dam
(b) Arch dam
(c) Buttress dam
(d) Earthen dam
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 4: What type of rivers is most suitable for construction of dams?
(a) Influent
(b) Effluent
(c) Insulated
(b) All the above.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.5: Forces acting a dam is/are due to:
(a) Water thrust
(b) Weigh of dam itself
(c) Uplift pressure
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 6: The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called:
(a) Valley storage
(b) Useful storage
(c) Dead storage
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 7: The forces considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam
Under empty reservoir condition is:
(a) Water pressure
(b) Uplift pressure
(c) Self weight
(d) Earthquake pressure.
ANSWER:(c)
Q. 8: ln a gravity dam, tail water causes:
(a) Decrease in shear stress
(b) Decrease in principal stress
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of these.
ANSWER:(c)
Q. 9: The elementary profile of a dam is:
(a) A trapezoidal.
(b) A right angled triangle
(c) A rectangle
(d) None of the above.
ANSWER:(b)
Q. 10: Length and Height of the Safdar Samovar dam are:
(a) 1210 mtrs and 138 mtrs respectively
(b) 1300 mtrs and 150 mtrs, respectively
(c) 1550 mtrs and 120 mtrs respectively
(d) 1610 mtrs and 100 mtrs respectively.
ANSWER:(a)
Q. 11: Vertical acceleration due to earthquakes results in:
(a) Increase in the effective weight of the dam.
(b) A decrease in the effective weight of the dam.
(c) Any of the both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
ANSWER:(c)
Q. 12: ln gravity dam, the main overturning force is:
(a) Wind pressure
(b) Water pressure
(c) Uplift pressure
(d) Self weight of the dam.
ANSWER:(b)
Q. 13: The important geological requirements which should be considered in the selection
of a dam site is/are :
(a) Narrow river valley
(b) Occurrence of the bed rock at a shallow depth
(c) Competent rocks and proper geological structures.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER:(d)
Q. 14: The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a
zoned embankment type dam is :
(a) Clay
(b) Clay mixed with line sand.
(c) Compacted soil
(d) Course sand.
ANSWER :(b)
Q. 15: The obstruction across the river required to raise its water level and direct the water
into the cannel is called :
(a) Guide bank
(b) Divide wall
(c) Weir
(d) Sluice.
ANSWER :(c)
Q. 16: The name of the Bhaskara dam’s reservoir is:
(a) Sardar samovar reservoir
(b) Ramgarh reservoir
(c) Govind Sagar reservoir
(d) Sutlej reservoir
ANSWER :(c)
Q. 17: The rock types exposed in and around the Nagarjun Sagar dam site are:
(a) Granites only
(b) Granite gneisses
(c) Sandstones
(d) Sandstones interbedded with clay beds.
ANSWER :(b)
Q. 18: Match the following columns:
I I II
1. Bhakra dam i) Earthen dam
2. Indukki dam (ii) Concrete gravity dam
3. Beas dam (iii) Masonry dam
4. Krishna raja Sagar dam (iv) Concrete arch dam.
(a) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(b) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii.
(c) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
(d) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i
ANSWER:(b)
Q.19: Which earthquake is thought the best example of RIS :
(a) Uttarkasu earthquake
(b) Laure earthquake
(c) Koyna earthquake
(d) Kutch Earthquake.
ANSWER:(c)
Q. 20: Tehri darn is being constructed across:
(a) Ghaghara river
(b) Chambal river
(c) Bhagirathi river
(d) Ganga river.
ANSWER:(c)
Q. 21 : To facilitate the work of dam foundation the normal flow of river water is diverted
through the tunnels, dug along the valley sides. These tunnels are known as :
(a) Pressure tunnels
(b) Discharge tunnels
(b) Transportation tunnels
(d) Diversion tunnels
ANSWER:(d)
Q.22: Strain is:
(a) The change of form produced in a piece by the action of load.
(b) The change in metals.
(c) The result of load application on a body
(d) The change in shape and direction in metal.
Answer: (b)
Q.23: The young modulus of a material is equal to:
(a) Stress/strain within the elastic limit
(b) Stress/strain within the yield point.
(c) Strain/stress the elastic limit.
(d) None of these.
Answer: (a)
Q.24: A brittle material has:
(a) Large plastic zone
(b) No plastic zone
(c) No elastic zone
(d) Very little elastic zone.
Answer: (b)


Q.25: A body having similar properties throughout its volume is said to be:
(a) Isentropic
(b) Anisotropic
(c) Isotropic
(d) Homogeneous.
Answer: (d)

Friday, April 27, 2012

English Grammar Test for Civil Services Exams

English Grammar Test for Civil Services Exams
 English MCQ paper

Directions:  Choose the Opposite to the given word in each of the following questions.

1. RESERVED
(a) Likeable
(b) Tall-captive
(c) Popular
   (d) Companionable
ANSWER. (b)

2. CULPRIT
(a) Jury
(b) Witness
(c) Accused
   (d) Victim
ANSWER. (d)

3. ZANY
(a) Cautious
(b) Calculating
(c) Cunning
   (d) Sane
ANSWER. (d)

4. OBSOLETE
(a) Conducive
(b) Rare
(c) Useless
   (d) Recent
ANSWER. (d)

5. INFRUCTUOUS
(a) Devious
(b) Straight
(c) Remote
   (d) Attractive
ANSWER. (b)

6. IMMEDIATE
(a) Delayed
(b) Gradual
(c) Leisurely
   (d) Slow
ANSWER. (d)

7. CHURLISH
(a) Accommodating
(b) Polite
(c) Helpful
(d) Happy
ANSWER. (b)

8. GROTESQUE
(a) Imaginary
(b) Familiar
(c) Hateful
(d) Natural
ANSWER. (d)

9. DEBACLE
(a) Regain
(b) Progress
(c) Rise
(d) Movement
ANSWER. (c)

10. CAPITULATE
(a) Conquer
(b) Venerate
   (c) Destroy
(d) Surrender
ANSWER. (a)

11. INDOLENT
(a) Desirable
(b) Adequate
(c) Energetic
   (d) Consistent
ANSWER. (c)

12. DOLEFUL
(a) Poor
(b) Happy
(c) Rich
   (d) Steady
ANSWER. (b)

13. MASTICATE
(a) Gobble
(b) Conceal
   (c) Chew
(d) Review
ANSWER. (a)

14. NEAT
(a) Sloppy
(b) Fragrant
(c) Spruce
   (d) Prodigal
ANSWER. (a)

15. ILLUSTRIOUS
(a) Uneducated
(b) Uncivilized
(c) Unintelligent
   (d) Unknown
ANSWER. (d)

16. LETHAL
(a) Safe
(b) Playful
(c) Virulent
   (d) Forgiving
ANSWER. (a)


17. INNOCENCE
(a) Crime
(b) Mischief
(c) Guilt
   (d) Sin
ANSWER. (c)

18. FRUGAL
(a) Gaudy
(b) Generous
(c) Extravagant
   (d) Charitable
ANSWER. (c)

19. ERRATIC
(a) Regular
(b) Right
   (c) Punctual
(d) Free
ANSWER. (a)

20. MONOLOGUE
(a) Dialogue
(b) Prologue
(c) Epilogue
(d) Catalogue
ANSWER. (a)

21. CHIDE
(a) Praise
(b) Fear
(c) Criticize
(d) Flatter
ANSWER. (a)

22. BLEMISH
(a) Preserve
(b) Purify
(c) Defect
(d) Tarnish
ANSWER. (b)

23. REPRISAL
(a) Relief
(b) Forgiveness
   (c) Exemption
(d) Relaxation
ANSWER. (b)

24. FRIEND
(a) Rival
(b) Acquaintance
(c) Foe
(d) Competitor
ANSWER. (c)

25. ALLURE
(a) Repulse
(b) Develop
(c) Entice
(d) Decoy
ANSWER. (a)

UPSC, Bank Clerical English Paper

UPSC, Bank Clerical English Paper
 English Grammar Free Online Quiz

Directions:  Choose the Antonyms to the given word in each of the following questions.

1. SUB ROSA
(a) Fresh
(b) Intoxicating
(c) Open
   (d) Repulsive
ANSWER. (c)

2. INVETERATE
(a) Stupid
(b) Uneducated
(c) Ignorant
   (d) Inexperienced
ANSWER. (d)

3. DISDAIN
(a) Depreciate
(b) Admiration
(c) Penitence
   (d) Contempt
ANSWER. (b)

4. HAWK
(a) Conciliation
(b) Dove
(c) Pacifist
   (d) Pigeon
ANSWER. (b)

5. INSANITY 
(a) Sanity
(b) Normality
(c) Lucidity
   (d) Sobriety
ANSWER. (a)

6. QUIESCENT
(a) Troublesome
(b) Weak
(c) Indifferent
   (d) Unconcerned
ANSWER. (a)

7. HARMONY
(a) Hatred
(b) Friction
(c) Discord
(d) Enmity
ANSWER. (c)

8. ARTIFICIAL
(a) Solid
(b) Truthful
(c) Authentic
(d) Natural
ANSWER. (d)

9. ARCHAIC
(a) Modem
(b) Broken
(c) Old
(d) Dilapidated
ANSWER. (a)

10. MUNDANE
(a) Extraordinary
(b) Superb
(c) Heavenly
   (d) Excellent
ANSWER. (c)

11. COSSET
(a) Neglect
(b) Divert
(c) Pamper
   (d) Pinch
ANSWER. (a)

12. MORTAL
(a) Eternal
(b) Spiritual
   (c) Immortal
   (d) Divine
ANSWER. (c)

13. UNDERHAND
(a) Cruel
(b) Quiet
(c) Secret
   (d) Open
ANSWER. (d)

14. TERSE
(a) Concise
(b) Detailed
(c) Expressive
   (d) Descriptive
ANSWER. (b)

15. PASTEL
(a) Urban
(b) Delicate
(c) Bright
   (d) Sweet
ANSWER. (c)

16. ENCOURAGE
(a) Warn
(b) Discourage
(c) Dampen
   (d) Disapprove
ANSWER. (b)

17. DIABOLIC
(a) Patient
(b) Generous
(c) Kind
   (d) Simple
ANSWER. (c)

18. JUSTIFY
(a) Accuse
(b) infuriate
   (c) Absolve
(d) Vindicate
ANSWER. (a)

19. CRITICISE
(a) Judge
(b) Appreciate
   (c)Flatter
(d) Analyse
ANSWER. (b)

20. CATHOLIC
(a) Rigid
(b) Orthodox
(c) Strict
(d) Narrow-Minded
ANSWER. (d)

21. UNCOUTH
(a) Crude
(b) Awkward
(c) Courteous
(d) Refined
ANSWER. (c)

22. RELIGIOUS
(a) Atheistic
(b) Immoral
   (c) Secular
(d) Sinful
ANSWER. (c)

23. DISCREPANCY
   (a) Variance
   (b) Inappropriate
(c) Consistency
(d) Inconsistency
ANSWER. (c)

24. DIVERGE
(a) Repulse
(b) Converge
(c) Resurge
(d) Constrict
ANSWER. (b)

25. CRASS
(a) Gross
(b) Refined
(c) Course
(d) Dense
ANSWER. (b)


Geology Practice Sample Test

Geology Practice Sample Test
 Model Question Paper Geology

Q.1. A right circular cylinder open at the top is filled
with liquid (specific gravity 1.2) and rotated about its
vertical axis at such speed that half the liquid spills out.
Pressure at the centre of bottom is
(a) Zero
(b) One eighth of its value when cylinder was full
(c) One fourth of its value when cylinder was full
(d) Half of its value when cylinder was full
ANSWER: (c)

Q.2. Velocity of fluid particle at the centre of pipe section is
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Average
(d) R.M.S.
ANSWER: (c)

Q.3. Tranquil flow must always occur
(a) At normal depth
(b) Above normal depth
(c) Below normal depth
(d) Above critical depth
ANSWER: (d)

Q.4. Boundary layer separation is caused by
(a) Reduction of pressure gradient to zero
(b) An adverse pressure gradient
(c) Sudden entrapping of air
(d) Rough surface conditions
ANSWER: (a)

Q.5. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to
(a) Regulate the flow
(b) Increase discharge
(c) Increase velocity
(d) Avoid an interruption in the flow
ANSWER: (d)

Q.6. Ratio of inertia force to pressure forces is related
with u non-dimensional number called
(a) Reynolds number
(b) Eulers number
(c) Nusselt number
(d) Match number
ANSWER: (d)

Q.7. Process of diffusion of one liquid into other
through a semi-permeable membrane is called
(a) Viscosity
(b) Osmosis
(c) Surface tension
(d) Cohesion
ANSWER: (b)

Q.8. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical
sluice gate 2 rn X 1 m with its top 2 m, surface being
0.5 m below the water level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
ANSWER: (a)

Q.9. To replace a compound pipe by a new pipe, the
pipes will be equivalent when both the pipes have same
(a) Length and flow
(b) Diameter and flow
(c) Loss of head and flow
(d) Length and loss of head
ANSWER: (d)

Q.10. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and
tends to contract to smallest possible area due
to the force of
(a) Adhesion
(b) Cohesion
(c) Friction
(d) Diffusion
ANSWER: (c)

Q.11. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a
floating body is equal to the weight of fluid displaced
by the body. This definition is according to,
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes’s principle
(d) Bernoulli’s theorem
ANSWER: (a)

Q.12. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is
greater than adhesion between fluid and glass,
then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube
will be
(a) Higher than the surface of liquid
(b) Same as the surface of liquid
(c) Lower than the surface of liquid
(d) Unpredictable
ANSWER: (b)

Q.13. The point in the immerse body through which
the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken
to act is known as
(a) Metacentric
(b) Centre of pressure
(6) Centre of buoyancy
(d) Centre of gravity
ANSWER: (a)

Q.14: The Bench Mark fixed at the end of a day’s work is called as:
(a) Arbitary BM
(b) Temporary BM.
(c) Permanent BM.
(d) G T S BM.
Answer. (b)

15: The operation of levelling from any BM to the starting point of any project is known as:
(a) Continuous levelling.
(b) Longitudinal levelling.
(c) Fly levelling.
(d) Parallel leveling.
Answer. (c)

Q.16: The vertical distance between two adjacent contour lines is called:
(a) Contour interval.
(b) Contour gradient.
(c) Vertical equivalent.
(d) Horizontal equivalent.
Answer. (a)

Q17: A contour line intersects a ridge line or valley line:
(a) Parallely.
(b) Perpendicularly
(c) Obliquely.
(d) Vertically.
Answer. (b)

Q.18: Ring contours of higher values outward represent a:
(a) Hin.
(b) Slope.
(c) Depression.
(d) Level ground.
Answer. (c)

Q.19: For contouring a hilly terrain which method is most suitable:
(a) Tacheometric method.
(b) Indirect method.
(c) Direct method.
(d) Square method.
Answer. (a)

Q.20: When a contour internal is fixed between 0.25 and 0.50 m, it indicates:
(a) A sleep slope.
(b) A Flattish slope.
(c) Almost level ground.
(d) Fairly horizontal ground.
Answer. (b)

Q.21: When contours of different elevation cross each other, it indicates a/an:
(a) Overhanging cliff.
(b) Vertical cliff.
(c) Saddle.
(d) Valley.
Answer. (a)

Q.22: A Theodolite in which the telescope can be revolved through a complete revolution in a
vertical plane is known as:
(a) Non-transit Theodolite.
(b) Transit Theodolite.
(c) Tilting Theodolite.
(d) Levelling Theodolite.
Answer. (b)

Q.23: The face left position is also called:
(a) Telescope reversed.
(b) Telescope inverted.
(c) Telescope normal.
(d) Telescope right.
Answer. (c)

Q.24: Balancing of traverse is done according to the:
(a) Prismoidal rule.
(b) Transit rule.
(c) Trapezoidal rule.
(d) Gales rule.
Answer. (b)

Q.25: The horizontal distance between two consecutive contours is termed as a:
(a) Horizontal interval.
(b) Horizontal equivalent.
(c) Vertical surface.
(d) Plain ground.
Answer. (b)

Free Online Earth Science Quiz

Free Online Earth Science Quiz
Geology Practice Test

 Q. 1: According to D.N. Wadia the mid Gondwana (Lower Jurassic) is characterised by:
(a) Dicroidium
(b) Dadoxylon
(c) Sphenophyllum
(d) Vartebraria
ANSWER. (a)

Q. 2: The Glossopteris flora commencing from the pennon-carboniferous and attaining it's
Maximum in the:
(a) Permian
(b) Triassic
(c) Jurassic
(d) Cretaceous.
ANSWER. (a)

Q. 3: Based on the changes in the foraminifera assemblage, the Jurassic/Cretaceous
Boundary is defined at the:
(a) Athlete/Acnes stage
(b) Umia/mundhanian staged
(c) Amps/Romani stage
(d) It is uncertain.
ANSWER. (b)

Q. 4: The termination of older ammonites is seen in:
(a) The lower Athlete bed of Chari.
(b) The Gajansar bed of Katrol
(c) The upper Trigoniajged of Umia
(d) The Bhuj bed of Umia.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.5: Which is considered as a Precambrian Cambrian Transitional fossil?
(a) Lepidopterist
(b) Sabelliditids
(c) Plantlets
(d) Rookeries
ANSWER. (b)

Q. 6 : Trace fossils of Limulicubichnus are reported for the first time from the :
(a) Lower Miocene rocks at Kutch
(b) Upper Eocene rocks at salt range.
(c) Tipam Sandstones.
(d) Oligocene rocks at Baluchistan.
ANSWER.(a)

Q. 7: Which plant species have been recognised from the bauxite-bearing plateau at?
panchpatmali of orissa and that may be an indicator of bauxite :
(a) Phoenix Acaulis
(b) Stratifera undated
(c) Lepidopterists
(d) Nucleoli.
ANSWER.(a)

Q. 8: Rajmahal paradox is a:
(a) Conifer ales
(b) Filicides
(c) lncerlae
(d) Equisetales.
ANSWER.(c)

Q. 9: The study of radiolarian may be used to get information about:
(a) Ancient water temperature
(b) Oceanic depths
(c) Age of the water masses
(d) All the above.
ANSWER.(d)

Q. 10: The upper Gondwana rocks are characterised by:
(a) Glossopteris flora
(b) Ptilophyllum flora
(c) Vartebraria flora 
(d) Gangamopteris flora.
ANSWER. (b)

Q. 11: Vartebraria is thought to be the stem of:
(a) Dadoxylon
(b) Glossopteris
(c) Gangamopteris
(d) Ptilophyllum
ANSWER. (b)

Q. 12: Glossopteris is the name of:
(a) Phylum
(b) Class
(c) Order
(d) Genus.
ANSWER. (d)

Q. 13: The highest Jurassic assemblage occurs in:
(a) Tithonian age
(b) Apian age
(c) Oxford an age
(d) Collegian age.
ANSWER. (a)

Q. 14 : Late Eocene Ostracoda for the first time have been recorded from :
(a) Sadewala well of Jaisalmer basin, Rajasthan
(b) Kharatar well of Jaisalmer basin, Rajasthan
(c) Bombay high
(d) Both (a) and (b)
ANSWER. (d)

Q. 15: Precambrian - Cambrian Transitional fossil - Sabelliditids for the first time in India
has been reported from :
(a) Wadhwan formation Gujrat
(b) Pali-Parsora -Tiki formation.
(c) Bhima group of rocks
ANSWER. (d)

Q. 16: First marine macro invertebrate has been recorded from:
(a) Umia Sandstone
(b) Ukra cankerous shale
(c) Bhuj Sandstone of eastern Katch
(d) Talchir sandstone.
ANSWER.(c)

Q. 17: Williamson India is a:
(a) Filicides
(b) Cycadophyta
(c) Conifer ales
(d) lncerlae.
ANSWER.(b)

Q.18. The magnitude of water hammer depends on the
(a) Length of pipeline
(b) Speed at which the valve is closed
(c) Elastic properties of the liquid flowing
through the pipe and pipe material
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (d)

Q.19. Mercury is suitable for manometers because it
(a) Has high density
(b) It can easily be seen in tube
(c) Does not stick to tube walls
(d) It is generally not used in manometers
ANSWER: (d)

Q.20. When the water flows over a rectangular
suppressed weir, the pressure beneath the nape is
(a) Very high
(b) Slightly above atmospheric
(c) Atmospheric
(d) Negative
ANSWER: (d)

Q.21. Motion of a fluid in which the fluid mass rotates
without the external force is known as
(a) Rotary motion
(b) Circulatory motion
(c) Free vortex motion
(d) Forced voters motion.
ANSWER: (c)

Q.22. In parallel pipe problems
(a) Pressure gradient remains through all the pipes
(b) Hydraulic gradient remains same through all pipes
(c)    Head loss is same through each pipe
(d)   Head losses through each pipe are added to obtain the total head loss
ANSWER: (d)

Q.23. Head loss in turbulent flow in pipe varies directly
as the
(a) Square root of velocity
(b) Velocity
(c) Square of velocity
(d) Cube root of velocity
ANSWER: (a)

Q.24. Froude number is useful in the calculations of
(a) Water hammer
(b) Flow through pipes
(c) Hydraulic jump
(d) Surface tension
ANSWER: (a)

Q.25. The continuity equation of flow is based on the
principle of conservation of
(a) Momentum
(b) Mass
(c) Energy
(d) None of the above
 ANSWER: (c)