Free Online UPSC Law Practice Sample Paper

Free Online UPSC Law Practice Sample Paper
 State Judicial Law Solved Questions

1. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding case diary?

The investigating officer should note in the case diary the time and place—

(A) At which he received the information on which he acts

(B) At which he begins investigation

(C) At which investigation is closed

(D) When he was called by the Superintendent of Police for enquiry regarding the progress of investigation

Ans:-D

2. Which Para of U. P. Police Regulations deals with postmortem examination and procedure?

(A) 137

(B) 138

(C) 139

(D) 140

Ans:-C

3. Under the Police Act, 1861 the word ‘Police’ includes such persons who have under the Act been—

(A) Enrolled

(B) Trained

(C) Appointed

(D) Selected

Ans:-A

4. In which of the following decisions it was laid down that departmental proceedings can also be initiated against a police officer who has been held guilty under Section 29 of the Police Act, 1861?

(A) Asha Ram Vs. G. C. Saxena

(B) State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. Harish Chandra Singh

(C) Som Nath Sahu Vs. State

(D) Arya Veer Saxena Vs. State

Ans:-B

5. In a prosecution for rape, ‘here sexual intercourse by the accused is proved and the woman states in her evidence before the court that she did not consent—

(4) The court may presume that she did not consent

(B) The court may regard her evidence as conclusive proof that she did not consent

(C) The court may require further proof that she did not consent

(D) The court shall presume that she did not consent

Ans:-D

6. Assertion (A) In criminal cases the fact that accused is of good character is relevant.

Reason (R) : In criminal cases bad character of the accused is always irrelevant.

Select the correct answer using the code given. below—

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true(R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Ans:-C

7. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set out in the Preamble is—

(A) To define and amend the law of evidence

(B) To consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence

(C) To highlight, define and consolidate the law of evidence

(D) To highlight, consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence

Ans:-B

8. The object of cross-examination is—

(A) To examine the intelligence of the witness

(B) To examine the impartiality, of the witness

(C) To examine the credibility of the witness

(D) To examine the good character of the witness

Ans:-C

9. The father of accused did not support the prosecution during the trial that he told the witness that his son (accused) had committed the murder. The statement of the witness would be in the nature of—

(A) Secondary evidence

(B) Hearsay evidence

(C) Res gestae

(D) None of the above

Ans:-B

10. A wife had only seen a speeding vehicle, which had crushed the husband at a little distance. She had not seen the accident herself, The husband died of heart attack a day later. Can wife’s evidence be taken of what the injured husband said to her after the accident?

(A) Yes, it being a dying declaration

(B) No, it is merely a hearsay evidence

(C) No, because it is a privileged communication

(D) Yes, it being a part of resgestae

Ans:-D

11. The question between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is, whether a certain deed is or is not forged. ‘A’ affirms that it is genuine, ‘B’ that it is forged—

(A) ‘A’ may prove a statement by ‘B’ that the deed is genuine, and ‘B’ may prove a statement by ‘A’ that the deed is forged

(B) ‘A’ may prove a statement by ‘B’ that the deed is forged, and ‘B’ may prove a statement by ‘A’ that the deed is genuine

(C) ‘A’ may prove a statement by himself that the deed is genuine

(D) ‘B’ may prove a statement by himself that the deed is forged

Ans:-A

12. An approver’s evidence—

1. Must be reliable.

2. Must be corroborated.

3. Must be reliable and preferably corroborated.

4. Is not admissible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below—

Codes:

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 3 and 2

(D) 2and4

Ans:-B

13. Which one of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defences available in

action for defamation ?

(A) Privilege, truth, fair comment

(B) Fair comment, mistake, and privilege

(C) Fair comment, mistake truth

(D) Mistake, privilege, truth

Ans:-A

14. Which of the following is a leading case on intoxication?

(A) Nathulal Vs. State of M. P.

(B) Director Public Prosecutions Vs. Beard

(C) Barrow Vs. Isaacs

(D) None of the above

Ans:-B

15. Under which of the following sections of I.P.C., there is provision of death sentence ?

Answer with the help of code given below—

1. Sections 194 and 449

2. Sections 132 and 194

3. Sections 364 A and 396

4. Sections 124A and 132

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 4 only

Ans:-B

16. Which one of the following is an inchoate crime?

(A) Public nuisance

(B) Criminal attempt

(C) Unlawful assembly

(D) Riot

Ans:-B

17. The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is—

(A) Committed by 5 or more persons

(B) Committed by 2 or more persons, but less than five persons

(C) Coupled with force

(D) Coupled with imminent danger to life

Ans:-D

18. ‘A’ by putting ‘B’ in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces ‘B’ to sign in a blank paper and delivers it to ‘A’. ‘B’ after signing that paper delivers it to ‘A’. ‘A’ has committed—

(A) Theft

(B) Dacoity

(C) Robbery

(D) Extortion

Ans:-D

19. When it shall appear that any unlawful assembly, or riot or disturbance has taken place and police force is not sufficient for preservation of peace, Special Police Officers may be appointed by—

(A) The Magistrate on application of Police Officer not below the rank of inspector

(B) The Superintendent of Police of the District concerned

(C) The Deputy Inspector General of Police of the range

(D) The Inspector General of Police of the zone

Ans:-A

20. The period of limitation within which defendant shall submit his written statement is ordinarily within—

(A) 60 days from service of summons

(B) Always 90 days from service of summons

(C) 30 days from service of summons or 90 days if allowed by the court

(D) 15 days from service of summons

Ans:-C

21. Certain topics under the Code of Civil Procedure are described hereunder in List-I while their Section/Order numbers are mentioned in List-II Match the entries of List-I and List-II and write the correct answer using the codes below—-

List-I

(a) Affidavit

(b) Arrest before Judgement

(c) Commission to examine witnesses

(d) Suit by indigent persons

List-II

1. Order 26

3. Order 19

2. Order 33

4. Order 38

Codes:

   (a)(b)(c)(d)

 (A)2  1  3  4

 (B) 3 2  1  4

 (C) 3  4 1  2

 (D) 1  2 3  4

Ans:-C

22. The Amendment of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in the year 2002 amended—

(A) Section- 100

(B) Section- 106

(C) Section- 108

(D) Section-110

Ans:-B

23. Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with the following—

(A) Departmental proceedings

(B)Judicial proceedings

(A) and (B) both

(D) None of the above

Ans:-A

24. A person may sue a foreign state—

(A) With the consent of the State Government

(B) Only with the consent of the Central Government

(C) With the consent of Central or State Government

(D) With the consent of the President of India

Ans:-B

25. Which of the following determinations does not come under the definition of ‘decree’ ?

(A) An adjudication which conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to some of the matters in issue before the court

(B) Rejection of a plaint

(C) Determination of any question under Section-144 of the Code of Civil Procedure

(D) Dismissal of a suit for default

Ans:-D