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Monday, May 7, 2012

UPHJS Solved Law Objective Test

UPHJS Solved Law Objective Test
 Uttar Pradesh Judicial Exam
1. Which section of Evidence Act is based on the Maxim ‘Salus populist sum rema lex’?
(A) Section- 119
(B) Section- 120
(C) Section- 115
(D) Section- 123
Ans:-D


2. Which provision of the Evidence Act provides that birth during marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy?
(A) Section- 110
(B) Section-111
(C) Section-112
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C


3. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act?
(A) Sir H. S. Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
(B) Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
(C) The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law Commission
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B

4. The doctrine of Lis-pendens is based on the principle of—
(A) Public policy
(B) Judicial policy
(C) Distributive justice
(D) Delay to be avoided in justice delivery system
Ans:-A

5. What can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
(A) An easement along with the dominant heritage
(B) Political pension
(C) Spes - Succession is
(D) Stipends allowed to the civil pensioners of the Government
Ans:-A


6. Concept of ‘onerous gift’ is embodied in which section of TP Act?
(A) Section- 125
(B) Section- 127
(C) Section- 128
(D) Section- 129
Ans:-B


7. State the correct answer, the familiar rule ‘redeem up foreclose down’ is a combination of provisions of—
(A) Sections-89 and 91
(B) Sections-9l and 92
(C) Sections-92 and 93
(D) Sections-91 and 94
Ans:-D

8. A right of future maintenance in whatsoever manner arising, secured or determined—
(A) Can be transferred
(B) Cannot be transferred
(C) Can be sold
(D) Can be vested
Ans:-B


9. Within the meaning of provisions of section 67 of the Transfer of Property Act the
mortgage remedies by suit are—
(A) For foreclosure or for sale
(B) For sale
(C) For appointment of receiver
(D) All are relevant
Ans:-A


10. ‘A’ transfers Rs. 5000 to ‘B’ on condition that he shall execute a certain lease within three months after A’s death and if he should neglect to do so, to C. B dies in A’s life time. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall apply in deciding the legal right of ’C’ ?
(A) Section-29
(B) Section-26
(C) Section-25
(D) Section-27
Ans:-D


11. What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed for use of deadly weapons in
‘Dacoity’ ?
(A) 10 years
(B) 07 years
(C) 05 years
(D) 14 years
Ans:-B

12. Under IPC, which one of the following sections makes provision of Solitary
Confinement?
(A) Section-71
(B) Section-72
(C) Section-73
(D) Section-74
Ans:-C

13. Which one of the following offences is not compoundable under IPC?
(A) Section-323
(B) Section-334
(C) Section-448
(D) Section-307
Ans:-D


14. Which one of the following is an incomplete crime?
(A) Public Nuisance
(B) Criminal attempt
(C) Unlawful Assembly
(D) Riot
Ans:-B


15. ‘X’ with the intention to kill ‘Y’ supplies him powdered sugar believing it to be poison. ‘Y’ eats the powder. ‘X’ is guilty of—
(A) No offence
(B) Attempt to commit murder
(C) Attempt to commit culpable homicide not amounting murder
(D) Abetment to commit murder
Ans:-A


16. An executioner who execute the death penalty is protected from criminal liability under which section of IPC?
(A) Section-97
(B) Section-78
(C) Section-79
(D) Section-80
Ans:-B


17. Just after theft, a man is found in the possession of stolen goods. This matter relates to which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Section-114-A
(B) Section-114
(C) Section- 115
(D) Section- 111-A
Ans:-B


18. What is the age of the child to get immunity from criminal liability?
(A) Less than 10 years
(B) Less than 7 years
(C) Less than 8 years
(D) Less than 14 years
Ans:-B


19. The law relating to criminal misappropriation of property is given under section—
(A) 403 IPC
(B) 41PC
(C) 407 IPC
(D) 411 IPC
Ans:-A

20. Assertion (A): Crime is punishable because it is provided in the law.
Reason (R) : Crime is revolting to the moral sense of society.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans:-B

21. ‘A’ shoots ‘Z’ with the intention of killing him. ‘Z’ dies in consequence. ‘A’ commits—
(A) Culpable homicide
(B) Murder
(C) Causing death by negligence
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B


22.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I
(a) Common Intention
(b) Common Object
(c) Instigation
(d) Dishonest Intention
List-II
1. Theft
2. Abetment
3. Joint liability
4. Constructive liability
Codes:
     (a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) 3  1   2  4
(B) 2  4   3  1
(C) 3  4   2  1
(D) 2  1   3  4
Ans:-C

23. ‘A’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ without ‘Z’s consent. Here ‘A’ intends to cause injury, fear or annoyance to ‘Z’.
(A) ‘A’ uses criminal force to ‘Z’
(B) ‘A’ uses force to ‘Z’
(C) ‘A’ uses assault to ‘Z’
(D) All the above
Ans:-A

24. It cannot be committed in a private place.
(A) Murder
(B) Riot
(C) Assault
(D) Affray
Ans:-D
  
25. ‘B’ takes a gold ring of ‘A’ out of ‘A’s possession without ‘A’s consent with the intention of keeping it till ‘A’ gives ‘B’ some money for its restoration to ‘A’. ‘B’ is guilty of—
(A) Cheating
(B) Criminal breach of trust
(C) Criminal misappropriation of property
(D) Theft
Ans:-D

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