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Monday, June 29, 2015

General Awareness Nepal Earthquake 2015

General Awareness Nepal Earthquake 2015
GK ON NEPAL EARTHQUAKE

1 In which month First Nepal earthquake ( Gorkha earthquake) occurred in 2015 ?

(a) March

(b) April

(d) Both b& c

2. How many people were killed in April 2015 Nepal earthquake ?

(a 5,800 people

(b) 7,800 people

(d) 9,500 people

3. Which neighbour countries were affected by Nepal earthquake in April 2015 ?

(a) India

(b) Bangladesh

(d) All of them

4. What was the time when earthquake occurred on 25 April in Nepal ?

(a) at 11:50 a.m.

(b) at 11:56 a.m.

(d) at 11:58 a.m.

5 In which year the worst earthquake in the history of Nepal and Bihar, India had occurred ?

(a) 1932

(b) 1933

(d) 1935

6. How many people were killed when earthquake triggered an avalanche on Mount Everest ?

(a) 19

(b) 25

(d) 40

7. What was magnitude of Nepal earthquake that occurred on 25 April 15 ?

(a) 4.5 M_w

(b) 5.5 Mw

(d) 7.8 M w or 8.1 M s

8. When the second major earthquake was occurred in May 2015 ?

(a) 12 May

(b) 13 May

(d) 15 May

9. When a major aftershock of magnitude 6.7 M_w occurred in Nepal at 12:55 NST (07:09 UTC)?

(a) 26 April 2015

(b) 27 April 2015

(d )29 April 2015

10. How many people died in Nepal as a result of the aftershock ?

(a) 80

(b) 90

(d) 150

ANSWERS

1. a

2. c

3. d

4. b

5. c

6. a

7. d

8.a
9.a
10. c

Friday, May 15, 2015

Objective test in Electronics Engineering For Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (ETE), Electronics and Communication

Objective test in Electronics Engineering
For Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (ETE), Electronics and Communication
1.Consider two samples of silicon semiconductor identical in all respects except that one is uniformly doped with10¹⁵ cm10^-3 donor impurity atoms (Sample A) and the other is non-uniformly doped with donors from one side such that N_d(x) = N₀ e ^-ax (sample B). Let a = 1 hm^-1 and N₀= 10¹⁷ cm^-3 . Consider the following sample B.
1. Sample A will not have any current at equilibrium but current will flow out of sample B
2. Both samples will have built-in electric, field
3. Sample A will have zero built-in electric field whereas sample B will have a constant built-in electric field
4. No current will flow at equilibrium from either sample A or sample B
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
2. Consider the following statements:
The temperature dependence of resistivity of a sample of N-type silicon is based upon carrier concentration and carrier mobility variations with temperature
because
1. the resistivity of silicon increases with temperature.
2. the mobility decreases with temperature
3. the carrier concentration increases with temperature
4. the resistivity of silicon decreases with temperature
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1,2and3
(b) 2,3and
(c)1 and2
(d) 3and 4
3. The unit of mobility is
(a)m²V^-1s^-1
(b) mV^-1s^-1
(c)Vsm^-1
(d) Vms^-1
4. The Haynes-Shockley experiment enables one to determine the
(a) diffusion coefficient of majority carriers
(b) effective mass of the minority carriers
(c) mobility of the minority carriers
(d) lifetime of the majority carriers
5. The Hall constant in p-Si bar is given by 5 x 10³ cm³⁵/Coloumb The hole concentration in the bar is given by
(a) 1.00 x 10¹⁵/ cm³
(b) 1.25 x 10¹⁵/ cm³
(c) 1.50 x 10¹⁵/ cm³
(d) 1.60 x 10¹⁵/ cm³ -
6. In an extrinsic semiconductor, the Hall coefficient RH
(a) increases with increase of temperature
(b) decreases with increase of temperature
(c) is independent of the change of temperature
(d) changes with the change of magnetic field
7. Consider a semiconductor bar having square cross-section. Assume that holes drift in the positive x-direction and a magnetic field is applied perpendicular to the direction in which holes drift. The sample will show
(a) a negative resistance in positive y-direction
(b) a positive voltage in positive y-direction
(c) a negative voltage in positive y-direction
(d) a magnetic field in positive y-direction
8. The change in barrier potential of a silicon p-n junction with temperature is
(a)0.025 Volts per degree C
(b) 0.250 Volts per degree C
(c)0.030 Volts per degree C
(d) 0.014 Volts per degree C
9.Moor’s law relates to
(a) speed of operation of bipolar devices
(b) speed of operation of MOS devices
(ç) power rating of MOS devices
(d) level of integration of MOS devices
10. The colour T. V. picture signal is a
(a) single-channel, one-dimensional signal
(b) single-channel, three-dimensional signal
(c) three-channel, one-dimensional signal
(d)three-channel, three-dimensional signal
11 Consider the following statements:
1. Fourier transform is special case of Laplace transform.
2. Region of convergence need not be specified for Fourier transform.
3. Laplace transform is not unique unless the region of convergence is specified.
4. Laplace transform is a special case of Fourier transform.
Which of these statements are correct?
Codes:
(a)2 and 4
(b) 4 and 1
(c)4, 3 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. The units of the spectrum obtained by Fourier transforming the covariance function of a stationary stochastic process is?
(a)power per Hertz
(b) energy per Hertz
(c)power per second
(d) energy per second
13. The maximum power that a 12 V d.c. source with an internal resistance of 20 Ohms can supply to a resistive load is ?
(a)12W
(b) 18W
(c)36W
(d) 48W
14. Consider the following statements associated with the Superposition theorem:
1. It is applicable to d.c. circuits only.
2. It can be used to determine the current in a branch or voltage across a branch.
3. It is applicable to networks consisting of more than one source.
4. It is applicable to networks consisting of linear and bilateral elements.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c)3, 4 and 1
(d) 4, 1 and 2
15. Which one of the following statements is NOT a property of R-L driving point
impedance?
(a) The first critical frequency at the origin is a zero
(b) The last critical frequency is a pole
(c) The impedance at S =infinity is always less than the impedance at S = zero
(d) The slope of the impedance curve is positive at all points
16. In a network containing resistances and reactances the roots of the characteristic
equation give for the circuit
(a)the forced response
(b) the total response
(c)the natural response
(d) the damped response
17. Consider the following:
Energy storage capability of basic passive elements is due to the fact that
1. resistance dissipates energy
2. capacitance stores energy
3. inductance dissipates energy
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 alone
(d) 1 and 2
18. ?L/C has the dimension of
(a)time
(b) capacitance
(c)inductance
(d) resistance
19. A network N’ is dual of network N if
(a) both them have same mesh equations
(5) both of them have the same node equations
(c) mesh equations of one are the node equations of the other
(d) KCL and KVL equations are the same
20. The input impedance of a short circuited quarter wave long transmission line is
(a) purely reactive
(b) purely resistive
(c) dependent on the characteristic impedance of the line
(d) none of the above
21. For a wave propagating in an air filled rectangular waveguide
(a) guided wavelength is never less than the free space wavelength
(b) wave impedance is never less than the free space impedance
(c) TEM mode is possible if the dimensions of the waveguide are properly chosen
(d) Propagation constant is always a real quantity
22. Consider the following statements with reference to Brewster angle:
1. For oblique incidence at a boundary, there is no reflected wave when the incident wave is vertically polarized.
2. Brewster angle can occur only at the boundary of a perfect conductor.
3. For a horizontally polarized wave, there is no Brewster angle.
4. When the incident wave is not fully vertically polarized, there will be a reflected component which is horizontally polarized.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1,2and3
(b) 2,3and4
(c)3, 4 and 1
(d) 4, 1 and 2
23. When a particular mode is excited in a wave-guide, there appears an extra electric component in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
(a) transverse-electric
(b) transverse-magnetic
(c) longitudinal
(d) transverse-electromagnetic
24. The most suitable primary standard for frequency is
(a)Rubidium vapour standard
(b) Quartz standard
(c)Hydrogen maser standard
(d) Caesium beam standard
25. Horizontally mounted moving iron instruments employ
(a)Eddy current damping
(b) Air friction damping
(c)Fluid friction damping
(d) Electromagnetic damping
26. There are four types of controlled sources, namely VC VS, VC CS, CC CS, CC VS.
It is required to select a proper controlled source configuration for interfacing
the output of a high-impedance microphone to a low impedance loudspeaker.
The proper source will be
(a) VC VS (Voltage Controlled Voltage source)
(b) VC CS (Voltage Controlled Current Source)
(c) CC CS (Current Controlled Voltage Source)
(d) CC VS (Current Controlled Voltage Source)
27. Some of the functional building blocks of a measurement system are:
Primary Sensing Element (PSE)
Variable Conservation Element (VCE),or Transducer
Data Transmission Element (DTE)
Variable Manipulation Element (VME)
Data Presentation Element (DPE)
The correct sequntial connection of the functional building blocks for an
electronic pressure gauge will be
(a)PSE, VME, VCE, DPE, DTE
(b) PSE, VCE, VME, DTE, DPE
(c)DTE, DPE, VCE, PSE, VME
(d) PSE. VCE, DTE, DPE, VME
28. According to Guassian statistical analysis, if the confidence level is 0.80, then the values lying outside the confidence interval are
(a)1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c)1 in 20
(d) 8 in 10
29. The true rams. voltmeter employs two thermocouples in order to
(a) prevent drift
(b) increase the accuracy
(c) increase the sensitivity
(d) cancel out the nonlinear effects of first thermocouple
30. A certain oscilloscope with 4cm by 4cm screen has its own sweep output fed to its input. If the x and y sensitivities are same, the oscilloscope will display a
(a) saw-tooth wave
(b) triangle wave
(c)diagonal line
(d) horizontal line
Answers :

1	d
2	b
3	a
4	c
5	b
6	a
7	b
8	a
9	d
10	b
11	d
12	b
13	b
14	b
15	c
16	c
17	d
18	d
19	c
20	d
21	a
22	c
23	b
24	d
25	b
26	a
27	b
28	a
29	d
30	c

electronics Solved MCQ For Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (ETE)

electronics Solved MCQ
For Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (ETE)
1. An ideal amplifier has
a) Noise figure of 0 db
b) Noise figure of more than 0 db
c) Noise factor of unity
d) Noise figure of less than 1 db
Ans : (c)
2. Fidelity represents
S1: Reproduction of signal
S2: Reproduction of phase relation
a) S1 and S2 are true
b) S1 and S2 are false
c) S1 false and S2 true
d) S1 true and S2 false
Ans : (d)
3. The decibel is a measure of
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Power level
Ans : (d)
4. Power gain in decibels is equal to voltage gain in decibels only when
a) Input impedance is equal to output impedance
b) Output impedance is zero
c) Never
d) Input impedance is zero
Ans : (a)
5. If the current gain of the amplifier is X, its voltage gain is Y, then its power gain will be
a) X/Y
b) X*Y
c) X+Y
d) X-Y
Ans : (b)
6. In an amplifier, the coupling capacitors are employed for
a) Limiting the bandwidth
b) Matching the impedance
c) Preventing of Dc mixing with input or output
d) Controlling the output
Ans : (c)
7. The amplifier which has no drift is called as
a) Differential amplifier
b) DC amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (d)
8. The amplifier gain varies with frequency. This happens mainly due to
a) Miller effect
b) Presence of external and internal capacitance
c) Logarithmic increase in its output
d) Inter stage transformer Ans : (b)
9. The outstanding characteristics of a D.C. amplifier is its
a) Ability to amplify Dc and low frequency signals
b) Temperature stability
c) Utmost economy
d) Avoidance of frequency sensitive components
Ans : (a)
10. Isolation amplifier actually operates on the principle of
a) Filtering
b) Attenuation
c) Clipping
d) Amplification
Ans : (b)
11. Isolation amplifiers are also called as
a) DC amplifier
b) Output amplifier
c) Inverting amplifier
d) Iso-amps
Ans : (d)
12. The improper response time of the amplifier in the biomedical recorders
a) Affects the gain of the amplifier
b) Delays the signals
c) Changes the shape of the waveform of the signal
d) Attenuates the signals
Ans : (c)
13. To reduce common mode interference during recording of bio signals one can use__________
a) Buffer amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (b)
14. Resistively generated inference arises through incorrect __________________
a) Grounding
b) Current density at the electrodes
c) Supply voltage
d) Input impedance
Ans : (a)
15. CMRR is more in_______________
a) Single ended amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Inverting operational amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (b)
16. For biomedical applications the mostly used amplifier is
a) Single ended amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Inverting operational amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (b)
17. ___________ amplifier is used to drive the recorder.
a) Power amplifier
b) Pre amplifier
c) Operational amplifier
d) Differential amplifier
Ans : (a)
18. When a number of components are fabricated on same IC chip it is necessary to provide isolation between two different components for input interconnection is called __________
a) Input amplification
b) Input differentiation
c) Common mode rejection
d) Input isolation
Ans : (d)
19. A chopper amplifier
a) Converts AC signal from low frequency to high frequency
b) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency
c) Converts AC signal from low frequency to DC high frequency
d) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency
Ans : (b)
20. Power amplifier is provided with
S1: Cross over distortion compensation
S2: Offset control
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
21. Pre amplifier isolation in ECG circuit is to
a) Increase input impedance
b) Decrease input impedance
c) Increase output impedance
d) Decrease output impedance
Ans : (a)
22. Raising input impedance of pre amplifier reduces
a) Input current
b) Output current
c) Stray current
d) Grid current
Ans : (c)
23. Common mode rejection ratio is defined as ratio of
a) Common mode gain to differential mode gain
b) Differential mode gain to common mode gain
c) Common mode gain at input to differential mode gain at input
d) Common mode gain at output to differential mode gain at output
Ans : (b)
24. An electrometer amplifier has high input impedance of
a) 1010?
b) 105?
c) 1020?
d) 1015?
Ans : (d)
25. When the input of differential amplifier V1 = 0, then the differential amplifier is said to be operated in
a) Common mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode
Ans : (c)
26. When either one of the inputs to the differential amplifier is equal to zero then it is said to be operated in
a) Single ended mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode
Ans : (a)

27. The negative feed back in an amplifier
a) Reduces voltage gain
b) Increases the voltage gain
c) Increases the gain band width product
d) Reduces the input impedances
Ans : (a)
28. Feedback in an amplifier always helps in
a) Increasing its input impedance
b) Increasing its gain
c) Controlling its output
d) Stabilizes its gain
Ans : (c)
29. Using mechanical chopper we cannot achieve high chopping rates due to their
a) Input impedance
b) Output impedance
c) Response time
d) Inertia
Ans : (d)
30. The CMRR of a typical IC OPAMP is
a) 70 dB
b) 80 dB
c) 85 dB
d) 75 dB
Ans : (b)
31. A -------------- is usually a display device used to produce a paper record of analog wave form.
a) Graphic pen recorder
b) Electron microscope
c) X-Y recorder
d) Oscilloscope
Ans : (a)
32. The _________ of a recording system is the magnitude of input voltage required to produce a standard deflection in a recorded trace.
a) Accuracy
b) Linearity
c) Sensitivity
d) Resolution
Ans : (c)
33. A recorder is said to have good frequency response when the sensitivity of the system is _________ for all frequencies present in the signal.
a) Unity
b) Zero
c) Infinity
d) Constant
Ans : (d)
34. In phase response of a recorder noise level ___________ with the band width of a system
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Reaches unity
d) Reaches infinity
Ans : (a)
35. Function of microscope is
S1: To magnify object, under observation
S2: To resolve the object
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
36. In electron microscope the projection of the motion on a plane normal to magnetic
induction (B) will be a circle of radius (r) =
a) mVsin?+eB
b) mVsin?/eB
c) mVsin?-eB
d) mVsin?*eB
Ans : (b)
37. Match the following
1. Electron microscope – (A) Electron gun
2. Oscilloscope – (B) Condensing magnetic lens
3. Galvanometric recorder – (C) Recording head
4. Magnetic recorder – (D) Drive motor
a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
Ans : (c)
38. In PMMC writing system, the magnitude of pen deflection is proportional to
S1: Current flowing through the coil
S2: Voltage in the coil
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (a)
39. Duration of rotation of pen in the PMMC system depends upon ___________
a) Phase angle
b) Frequency
c) Magnitude
d) Direction
Ans : (d)
40. The shorter wave length of the electron permits the detailed examination of tiny objects due to reduction of ___________ effects
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Refraction
d) Polarization
Ans : (b)
41. Which of the following recorder gives slow response
a) X-Y recorder
b) Oscillographic
c) Galvanometric
d) Magnetic
: (c)
42. The use of storage oscilloscope
S1: Viewing rapidly changing non repetitive wave forms
S2: Recording average values
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (b)
43. In X-Y recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)
44. In strip chart recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure
Ans : (c)
45. The slewing speed of X-Y recorder is
a) 1.6 m/s
b) 1.3 m/s
c) 1.4 m/s
d) 1.5 m/s
Ans : (d)

46. The resolution limit of electron microscope is
a) 2 A.V
b) 1 A.V
c) 1.5 A.V
d) 1.2 A.V
Ans : (b)
47. _____________ is also known as halftone storage or mersh storage.
a) Variable persistence storage
b) Bistable storage
c) Flat storage
d) CRT
Ans : (a)
48. Storage oscilloscope operates on the principle of
a) Primary emission
b) Deflection
c) Secondary emission
d) Diffusion
Ans : (c)
49. Stress and strain curves are plotted using
a) Magnetic tape recording
b) X-Y recording
c) Galvanometric
d) PMMC writing systems
Ans : (b)

Electronics Engineering practice test

Electronics Engineering practice test
Free Online Electronic Engineering Practice and Preparation Test
1. In synchronous counter,speed is
a)high
b)very low
c)0
d)limited
Ans:a
2.In shift register,CLR input is
a)to make all o/ps are one
b) to make all o/ps are zero
c) to make all o/ps are high
d)none of these
Ans:b
3. In shift register, input is transformed to output during
a)zero edge triggering
b)negative edge triggering
c)positive edge triggering
d) none of these
Ans:c
4.In counter,each filp flop will toggle when its clock receives a
a)zero edge clock
b)negative edge clock
c)positive edge clock
d) none of these
Ans:b
5.Which is D/A Converter
a)Binary weighted type
b)comparator type
c)Ramp type
d)none of these
Ans:a
6. Which is A/D Converter
a)Binary weighted type
b) Ramp type
c) either (a) or (b)
d)none of these
Ans:b
7.In A/D Converter, analog input is given to
a)ground of OPAMP
b)virtual ground of OPAMP
c)inverting of OPAMP
d)non inverting of OPAMP
Ans:d
8. In A/D Converter, reference input is given to
a)ground of OPAMP
b)virtual ground of OPAMP
c)inverting of OPAMP
d)non inverting of OPAMP
Ans:c
9.Dual slop converter is
a)DC converter
b)A.C Converter
c)D/A Converter
d)none of these
Ans:d
10.R-2R Converter is
a)DC converter
b)A.C Converter
c)D/A Converter
d)none of these
Ans:c
11.A/D Conversion used in
a)D.Cl machines
b) A.Cl machines
c)computers
d)none of these
Ans:c
12. If one of the inputs is high ,then output is also low in
a) NOR
b) AND
c) EXOR
d) NAND
Ans:a
13. If both inputs are low ,then output is high in
a) EXOR NOR
b) AND
c) NOR
d) NAND
Ans: c
14..NAND is a contraction of
a) AND-NOT
b) NOT-AND
c) AND-AND
d) None of these
Ans:b
15.NOT gate performs
a)no operation
b)addition
c)subtraction
d)inversion
Ans:d
16.A+A=?
a)1
b)B
c)A
d)complement of A
Ans:c

Basic Electronics and Comm Questions Objective

Basic Electronics and Comm Questions Objective
Electronics Communications Interview Questions and Answers
1.Communication is a process of
a) transfer of information
b) transfer of energy
c) transfer of channel
d) none of these
Ans:a
2. An example of communication service
a) printer
b) television
c) both(a)&(b)
d) none of these
Ans:b
3. Channel is
a) medium
b) signal
c) carrier
d) none of these
Ans:a
4. Analog signal varies with
a) sampling time
b) time continuously
c) sampling frequency
d) none of these
Ans:b
5. Discrete signal is represented by
a) coding
b) modulation
c) demodulation
d) sequence of samples
Ans:d
6. Carrier signal has
a) constant magnitude
b) constant frequency
c) variable frequency
d) variable time
Ans:a
7.Modulating signal has
a) low frequency
b) low modulation
c) high frequency
d) none of these
Ans:a
8. Modulation index is
a) Vm/Vc
b) Vc/Vm
c) Vm/Ic
d) None of these
Ans:a
9. fc +fm is
a) upper band frequency
b) lower band frequency
c) mid band frequency
d) none of these
Ans:a
10. fc –fm is
a) upper band frequency
b) lower band frequency
c) mid band frequency
d) none of these
Ans:b
11.In amplitude modulation, frequency is
a) constant
b) zero
c) variable
d) one
Ans:a
12. In amplitude modulation, amplitude is
a) constant
b) zero
c) variable
d) none of these
Ans:c
13.In frequency modulation, frequency is
a. constant
b. zero
c. variable
d.one
Ans:c
14. In frequency modulation, amplitude is
a.constant
b.zero
c.one
d.variable
Ans:a
15. frequency modulation has
a) one carrier
b) one carrier with two side band frequencies
c) one carrier with infinite frequencies
d) none of these
Ans:c
16. Amplitude modulation has
a) one carrier
b) one carrier with two side band frequencies
c) one carrier with infinite frequencies
d) none of these
Ans:b
17.FM signal is less affected by
a) loss
b) temperature
c) frequency
d) noise
Ans:d
18. FSK is
a) frequency shift keying
b) frequency shine keying
c) frequency shine keyboard
d) none of these
Ans:a
19. ASK is
a) Amplitude shift keying
b) Amplitude shift keyboard
c) Amplitude shine keying
d) none of these
e) Ans:a
20. HPA is
a) high power audio
b) high port audio
c) high power amplifier
d) none of these
Ans:c
21. Word ‘SCANNING’ is used in in
a) telecost
b) telephone
c) radio
d) TV
Ans:d
22. The frequency range of 1GHZ to 30GHZ are referred as
a) sound waves
b) micro waves
c) mini waves
d) none of these
Ans:b
23 . IF is
a) interference frequency
b) interconnection frequency
c) intermediate frequency
d) none of these
Ans:c
24. Low pass filter attenuates
a) high frequencies
b) low frequencies
c) medium frequencies
d) none of these
Ans:a
25 . high pass filter attenuates
a) high frequencies
b) low frequencies
c) medium frequencies
d) none of these
Ans:b
26. Low pass filter allows
a) high frequencies
b) medium frequencies
c) zero frequency
d) low frequencies
Ans:d
27. High pass filter allows
a) high frequencies
b) medium frequencies
c) zero frequency
d) low frequencies
Ans:a
28. Primary component of uplink section of satellite is
a) transformer
b) transistor
c) earth station transmitter
d) power station transmitter
Ans:c
29. Micro wave communication is used in
a) TNEB
b) telephone networks
c) industries
d) none of these
Ans:b
30. Non electric signal is converted into electrical signal by
a) transmitter
b) receiver
c) line
d) none of these
Ans:a
31. In order to reduce interference, the signal should be
a) amplified
b) multiplied
c) demodulated
d) modulated
Ans:d
32. An example for an analog signal
a) Sine wave
b) impulse signal
c) sample signal
d) None of these
Ans:a
33. Messages travel from transmitter to receiver with help of
a) Transmitter
b) Receiver
c) channel
d) antennas
Ans:c
34. Bandwidth of FM signal is ---than AM signal
a) lesser
b) either lesser or larger
c) larger
d) none of these
Ans:c
35. In AM modulation ,when the modulation index increases, transmitted power is
a) constant
b) increased
c) decreased
d) none of these
Ans:b
36. In FM modulation ,when the modulation index increases, transmitted power is
a) constant
b) increased
c) decreased
d) none of these
Ans:a
37. Sound signalsin TV are
a) amplitude modulated
b) dc modulated
c) frequency modulated
d) a and c
Ans:c
38. Video signals in TV are
a) amplitude modulated
b) de modulated
c) frequency modulated
d) none of these
Ans:a
39. In optical communication, carrier is
a) electromagnetic waves in optical frequency
b) electromagnetic waves in maximum frequency
c) electromagnetic waves in minimum frequency
d) none of these
Ans:a
40. Optical detector is
a) diode
b) PIN photo diode
c) transistor
d) none of these
Ans:b
41.Optical fibre has---diameter
a.small
b.large
c.zero
d.none of these
Ans:a
42. Optical fibre is fabricated by
a) glass
b) copper
c) aluminium
d) none of these
Ans:a
43.An earth station receiver consists of
a.RF to IF down converter
b. IFto RF converter
c.either (a)&(b)
d.none of these
Ans:a
44. An earth station transmitter consists of
a.RF to IF down converter
b. IFto RF converter
c. either (a)&(b)
d.none of these
Ans:b
45.VHF is
a.very low frequency
b.very high frequency
c.very hot frequency
d.none of these
Ans:b
46. TRF is nothing but
a.TV radio frequency
b.Tuned radio frequency
c.Tube radio frequency
d.none of these
Ans:b
47.which one of the following is the type of ‘superheterodyning’
a.Radio transmitter
b.TV
c.radio receiver
d.radar
Ans:c
48.AFC is nothing but
a.Audio frequency control
b.Automatic frequency control
c.Amplitude frequency control
d.none of these
Ans:b
49.The maximum power in AM,when modulation index is
a.0
b.0.5
c.0.7
d.1
Ans:d
50.Primary colours are
a.red,blue.green
b.green,white.blue
c.blue,red.yellow
d.none of these
Ans:a

Indian law practice Objective questions including questions on UP law

Indian law practice Objective questions including questions on UP law
Free online practice objective Questions for exams: Law
Objective Question Model Papers for judicial and legal Exams
1. ‘A’ intentionally fired a shot from his pistol at ‘B’ but it hit ‘C’ and ‘C’ died. The offence committed by ‘A’ is—
(A) Attempt to murder
(B)Culpable homicide
(C)Murder under Section 300
(D)Murder under Section 301
Ans:-D
2. ‘A’ makes a false entry in his electronic record for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in trial court. ‘A’ has—
(A) Fabricated false evidence
(B) Not fabricated false evidence
(C) Committed forgery
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
3. A workman throws snow from a roof giving proper warning. A passer by is killed. The workman is—
(A) Guilty of murder
(B) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Guilty of causing death by negligence
(D) Not guilty since death was accidental
Ans:-D
4. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘sedition’ ?
(A) Section 122
(B) Section 123
(C) Section 124
(D) Section 124-A
Ans:-D
5. ‘A’ puts his hand in the pocket of ‘B’ for stealing money, but the pocket was empty.
‘A’ is guilty of—
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
(C) Mischief
(D) No offence
Ans:-B
6. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with vicarious
Liability?
(A) Section 120-A
(B) Section 121
(C) Section 154,
(D) Section 159
Ans:-C
7. Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
Reason (R) : Where the aid of the society cannot be obtained, individual may do everything necessary to protect himself.
Codes:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A) .
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-C
8. The ingredients of Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code are—
1. Knowledge of the probability of the commission of the offence
2. Common intention
3. Unlawful objects stated in Section 141 of the I.P.C.
4. Active participation in commission of crime.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes:
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans:-D
9. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.
Reason (R) : Homicide is always unlawful.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-C
10. Which one of the following is not a correct ingredient of the offence of theft?
(A) Dishonest intention of take property
(B) Property must be movable
(C) Property must be taken without the consent of the person in whose possession it is
(D) Property must be taken without consent of the owner of the property
Ans:-D
11. Which one is not an essential ingredient of a crime?
(A) Motive
(B) Evil intent
(C) Human being
(D) Act
Ans:-A
12. Common intention means—
(A) Similar intention
(B) Same intention
(C) Sharing of intention by all persons
(D) Common plans
Ans:-C
13. Sexual intercourse by a man with a woman even with her consent is a rape, if she is
below the age of—
(A) 17 years
(B) 16 years
(C) 19 years
(D) 18 years
Ans:-B
14. Which one of the following is not a punishment under Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Fine
(B) Transportation
(C) Forfeiture of property
(D) Death
Ans:-B
15. In which of the following case the right of private defence of body does not extend to causing of death?
(A) Assault with the intention of committing kidnapping
(B) Assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust
(C) Wrongful restraint ‘
(D) Assault with the intention of committing abduction
Ans:-C
16. ‘Unlawful Assembly’ has been defined in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under—
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 146
(C) Section 149
(D) Section 159
Ans:-A
17. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Abetment of an abetment is not an offence
(B) Abetment of illegal omission may be an offence
(C) To constitute the offence of abetment the effect requisite to constitute the offence need not be caused
(D) The person abetted need not be capable by law of committing an offence
Ans:-A
18. Attempt to commit robbery is punishable under—
(A) Section 392 LP.C.
(B)Section 393 I.P.C.
(C)Section 390 I.P.C.
(D)Section 394 I.P.C.
Ans:-B
19. Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of kidnapping under the Indian Penal Code?
(A) Minor Child
(B) Intention of the accused
(C) Without the consent of lawful guardian
(D) Out of the keeping of the lawful guardian
Ans:-B
20. Making preparation to commit dacoity is punishable in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under—
(A) Section 393
(B) Section 395
(C) Section 398
(D) Section 399
Ans:-D
21. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Section)
(a) Section 463
(b) Section 445
(c) Section 441
(d) Section 503
List-II
(Offence)
1. Criminal Trespass
2. Forgery
3. Criminal intimidation
4. House-breaking
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans:-A
22. The case of Gian Kaur V/s State of Punjab is related to—
(A) Murder
(B) Culpable homicide
(C) Abetment of suicide
(D) Attempt to commit suicide
Ans:-D
23. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court declared Section 303 of the I.P. Code as unconstitutional?
(A) Sher Singh V/s State of Punjab
(B) Mithu V/s State of Punjab
(C) Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab
(D) Triveni Ben V/s State of Gujarat
Ans:-B
24. ‘A’ removes B’s book from his house without his consent with the intention to return it to him if he as a friend rewards him for the return. ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to theft
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) Attempt to criminal breach of trust
Ans:-A
25. ‘A’ incites ‘B’ to beat ‘C’. Subsequently ‘A’ reaches the place where ‘B’ is beating ‘C’. ‘A’ is liable under—
(A) Section 34
(B) Section 109
(C) Section 114
(D) Section 115
Ans:-C
26. ‘A’ cheats by pretending to be ‘B’, a person who is deceased ‘A’ is liable to be punished under—
(A) Section 420 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 419 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 418 of LP.C.
(D) Section 417 of I.P.C.
Ans:-B
27. In exercise of the right of private defence of property death cannot be caused in the case of—
(A) Robbery
(B) House breaking by night
(C) Mischief by fire in a dwelling house
(D) Theft
Ans:-D
28. Assertion (A): ‘A’ a boy aged nine years intentionally kills ‘B’. ‘A’ is liable to be convicted.
Reason (R) : A child up to the age of 12 years is immune from criminal liability.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true d (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanations of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-C
29. In a dark night ‘A’ and ‘B’ were fighting. B’s wife keeping her child on her shoulder reached there for separating them. In the meantime A’s fist fell on the back of the child and the child died ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) Hurt
(B) Grievous hurt
(C) Culpable homicide
(D) Murder
Ans:-A
30. In which of the following offences ‘Mens rea’ is not an essential ingredient?
(A) Murder
(B) Theft
(C) Robbery
(D) Bigamy
Ans:-D
31. ‘A’ beat his wife. She fell down and became unconscious. Believing her to be dead and to save himself from being arrested for murder ‘A’ hanged her in the fan with rope. Postmortem report disclosed her death from hanging. ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) Murder
(B) Culpable homicide
(C) Hurt
(D) Grievous hurt
Ans:-B
32. The word ‘good faith’ is defined in the Indian Penal Code in—
(A) Section 44
(B) Section 51
(C) Section 52
(D) Section 52-A
Ans:-C
33. ‘A’ is cutting the wood with an axe at a place where children are playing ? The axe files off and kills a nearby child. ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) No offence
(B) Murder
(C) Culpable homicide
(D) Causing death by negligence
Ans:-D
34. Insanity is—
(A) Lack of free will
(B) Incapacity produced due to drunkenness
(C) Incapable of knowing the nature of act committed
(D) Diseased mind
Ans:-D
35. ‘A’ finds a purse with money, not knowing to whom it belongs; he afterwards discovers that it belongs to ‘B’ and appropriates to his own use. ‘A’ is guilty of—
(A) Theft
(B) Criminal misappropriation
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) Cheating
Ans:-B
36. Which one of the following Sections of the police Act, 1861 has not been repealed?
(A) Section 06
(B) Section 44
(C) Section 41
(D) Section 11
Ans:-B
37. What is the date of enforcement of the Police (U.P. Amendment) Act, 2001?
(A) 15 August, 2001
(B) 26 January, 2001
(C) 10 August, 2001
(D) 14 March, 2001
Ans:-B
38. Which paragraphs of the U.P. Police Regulations deal with the absconding offences?
(A) 196 to 214
(B) 215 to 222
(C) l90 to195
(D) 223 to276
Ans:-B
39. Who is the Head of Criminal administration in a District?
(A) Superintendent of Police
(B) District Magistrate
(C) Additional District Magistrate (Administration)
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
40. A police constable compels a person to remain in police station on false case of theft and allowing him to go after receiving money from him. He is liable for—
(A) Forgery
(B) Cheating
(C) Extortion
(D) Wrongful confinement
Ans:-B
41. Under which Section of Police Act additional police force is provided in a
District on certain conditions—
(A) Section 13
(B) Section 16
(C) Section 14
(D) Section 15
Ans:-D
42. Under which Section of Police Act the State Government is empowered to make Rules and Regulations governing the service conditions of members of Police Force—
(A) Section2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 4
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
43. Which Section of Police Act deals with the duties of police officers?
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 22
(C) Section 23
(D) Section 24
Ans:-C
44. Which one of the following Sections of Police Act contains provisions relating to
General Diary?
(A) Section 43
(B) Section 44
(C) Section 45
(D) Section 46
Ans:-C
45. Regulation of public assemblies and processions and licensing of the same is provided in Police Act, 1861 under—
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 28
(C) Section 30
(D) Section 32
Ans:-C
46. Under the U.P. Police Regulations a village chowkidar is responsible to the—
(A) District Superintendent of Police
(B) Superintendent of Police (Rural)
(C) Village Pradhan
(D) District Magistrate
Ans:-D
47. The power of the District Superintendent of Police to regulate the volume of music on the roads on the occasion of festivals is provided under—
(A) Clause (4) of Section 15-A of the Police Act.
(B) Clause (2) of Section 27 of the Police Act.
(C) Clause (4) of Section 30 of the Police Act.
(D) Clause (3) of Section 16 of the Police Act.
Ans:-C
48. Under Section 25 of the Police Act, 1861, the charge of unclaimed property is to be take by—
(A) Deputy Superintendent of Police
(B)Superintendent of Police
(C)District-Magistrate
(D)Every Police Officer
Ans:-D
49. The statutory powers of the Inspector General of Police under Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 is subject to—
(A) Article 32 of the Constitution of India
(B) Article 226 of the Constitution of India
(C) Article 311 of the Constitution of India
(D) Article 309 of the Constitution of India
Ans:-C
50. Special Police officer under the Police Act, 1861 can be appointed by—
(A) A Magistrate suo motu
(B) The Inspector General of Police
(C) The Senior Superintendent of Police
(D) A Magistrate on an application by an Inspector of Police
Ans:-D

Tough Electronics engineering questions

Tough Electronics engineering questions
Electronics and communication engineering core questions
1. If the height of transmitting and receiving antennas in a LOS system are 49 m and 9 m respectively then the distance up to which communication may be possible is about
(a) 40km
(b) 110 km
(c)400 km
(d) 1100 km
2. The skip distance is
(a) same for each layer
(b) independent of frequency
(c) independent of the state of ionisation
(d) independent of transmitted power
3. Match List I (Instrument) with List II (Property/use) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
Listi List II
A. PMIVIC 1. Square law type scale
B. Moving iran 2. Very good high frequency response
C. Thermocouple 3. Linear scale over the entire range
D. Electrostatic type 4. Voltmeter
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
4. A coil would behave as
(a) an inductor at high frequencies
(b) a capacitor at very low frequencies
(c) a capacitor at very high frequencies
(d) a resistor at high frequencies
5. An ammeter of range 0—25 A has a guaranteed accuracy of 1% of full-scale reading. The current measured by the ammeter is 5A. The limiting error in the reading is
(a) 2%
(b) 2.5%
(c)4%
(d)5%
6. An inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4pF capacitor. The self-capacitance of the inductor would be
(a) 8.05 pF
(b) 10.05 pF
(c) 16.l0 pF
(d) 20.l0 pF
7. “The current internationally recognised unit of time and frequency is based on the cesium clock, which gives an accuracy better than 1 micro s per day.” This statement is related to
(a) Working standards
(b) International standards
(c) Primary standards
(d) Secondary standards
8. The bandwidth of a CR0 is from 0 to 20 MHz. The fastest rise time which a square wave can have, in order that it is accurately reproduced by the CR0 is
(a)0.175micro
(b) 17.5ns
(c) 35ns
(d) 52.5ns
9. A dc voltage of 1 V is applied to the X-plates of a CR0 and an ac voltage 2 sin 100 t is applied to the Y-plates. The resulting display on the CR0 screen will be a
(a) vertical straight line
(b) horizontal straight line
(c) sine wave
(d) slant line
10. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
(a) odd harmonics
(b) even harmonics
(c) fundamental component
(d) dc component
11. Wagner’s earth in ac bridge circuits is used to eliminate the effect of
(a) stray electrostatic fields
(b) stray electromagnetic fields
(c) inter-component capacitances
(d) parasitic capacitance to earth
12. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range
of
(a) 2000 to 500°C
(b) 0°C to 500°C
(c) 500°C to 1200°C
(d) 1200°C to 2500°C
13. Magnetic flux can be measured by
(a) capacitive pick-up
(b) inductive pick-up
(c) resistive pick-up
(d) Half-effect pick-up
14. A semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of
-2500 microV/ C. This transducer is indeed a
(a) thermistor
(b) forward-biased pn junction diode
(c) reverse-biased pn junction diode
(d) FET
15. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to
(a) produce a constant voltage
(b) provide temperature compensation
(c) provide a constant current
(d) measure average pH value
16. The most light sensitive transducer for conversion of light into electrical power
is the
(a) Photodiode
(b) solar cell
(c) Photoconductive cell
(d) photovoltaic cell
17. In an amplitude modulated system, if the total power is 600 W and the power in
carrier is 400 W, then the modulation index is
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.9
(d) 1
18. Time division multiplexing requires
(a) constant data transmission
(b) transmission of data samples
(c) transmission of data at random
(d) transmission of data of only one measurand
19. The dual of a parallel R-C circuit is a
(a series R-C circuit
(b) series R-L circuit
(c) parallel R-C circuit
(d) parallel R-L circuit
20. The function s+2+ 3/s can be realized
(a) both as a driving, point impedance and as a driving point admittance
(b) as an impedance, but not as an admittance
(c) as an admittance, but not as an impedance
(d) neither as an impedance nor as an admittance
Answer:
1 a
2 d
3 d
4 c
5 d
6 b
7 c
8 b
9 a
10 c
11 b
12 d
13 d
14 b
15 a
16 d
17 d
18 a
19 b
20 a