General Science Botany History Solved Questions

General Science Botany History Solved Questions
GK Based on History  of botany
1. How many years ago The first written records of plants were made in the Neolithic Revolution ?
(a)  5000
(b)  10,000
(c) 15,000
(d)  20,000

2. Early natural history divided pure botany into how many  main streams ?
(a)  2
(b)  3
(c)  4
(d)  5

3.  Name the branch of science which related to the study of the relationships that exist between peoples and plants.
(a)  Phycology
(b) Bryology
(c) Morphology-
(d) Ethnobotany

4. Bryology is the branch of botany concerned with the scientific study of ..............
(a)  Liverworts
(b) Hornworts
(c)  Mosses
(d) Allof the above

5.  Which is the  most studied ancient legal text among the many Dharmasastras of Hinduism ?
(a) Charaka Samhita
(b) Manu Smriti
(c) Vaisesika
(d) Sushruta Samhita

6. Which one of the following  is an ancient Sanskrit text on medicine and surgery ?
(a)  Sushruta Samhita
(b) Charaka Samhita
(c) Vaisesika
(d) Etiology

7. Who was the creator of  first recorded herbarium, as well as botanical garden in Europe ?
(a)  Aristotle
(b)  Luca Ghini
(c)  Theophrastus
(d)  Otto Brunfels

8. In which year Orto botanico di Pisa  was established  ?
(a)  1544
(b) 1563
(c) 1591
(d) 1595

9. Who is known as the "father of modern taxonomy" ?
(a) Cornelis Drebbel
(b) Johann Lippershey
(c) Carl Linnaes
(d) Ernst August Friedrich Ruska

10.  Name the scientist who won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1986 for his work in electron optics.
(a) Cornelis Drebbel
(b)  Johann Lippershey
(c) Carl Linnaes
(d) Ernst August Friedrich Ruska

11.  Who is commonly known as "the Father of Microbiology" ?
(a)  Carl Linnaes
(b) Antonie Philips van Leeuwenhoek
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Johann Lippershey

12. Who discovered that light is essential for  photosynthesis ?
(a)  John Ray
(b) Jan Ingenhousz
(c)  Rudolf Jakob Camerarius
(d)  Frederick Bowe

13. Who discovered the cell nucleus in living organisms ?
(a)  Robert Brown
(b) Robert Hooke
(c)  Van Leeuwenhoek
(d)  Jan Ingenhousz

14. Who  is best known for his discoveries of two important chemical reactions in the body, urea cycle and the citric acid cycle ?
(a)  Hans Adolf Krebs
(b) Ernst August Friedrich Ruska
(c)  Rudolf Jakob Camerarius
(d) Hans Adolf Krebs

15. Who discovered  the simple microscope which had a single lens and were hand-held ?
(a)  Johann Lippershey
(b)   John Ray
(c)  Antony Van Leeuwenhoek
(d) Ernst August Friedrich Ruska

Answers
1. b
2. b
3. d
4. c
5. b
6. a
7. b
8. a
9. c
10. d
11. b
12. b
13. a
14. d
15. c

Geology (Thermodynamics) MCQ Paper for Geologist

Geology (Thermodynamics) MCQ Paper for Geologist
Earth Science Model Test Paper

1. For a reversible adiabatic process, the change
in entropy is
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (c)

2. The entropy of an isolated system increases
during a
(a) Reversible process
(b) Irreversible process
(c) Ideal process
(d) Polytropic process
ANSWER: (b)

3. The efficiency of a Ranking cycle
(a) Increases with decreasing temperature of heat rejection.
(b) Decreases with decreasing temperature of heat rejection
(c) Decreases with increasing temperature of heat rejection
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (a)

4. Rankin cycle efficiency for a power plant is
29%. The Carnot cycle efficiency will be
(a) Less
(b) More
(c) Equal
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (b)

5. Efficiency of the Carnot cycle can be increased
by
(a) Increasing the highest temperature
(b) Decreasing the lowest temperature
(c) Decreasing the highest temperature
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
ANSWER: (d)

6. Air standard efficiency of Stirling cycle as
compared to Carnot cycle is
(a) Less
(b) More
(c) Same
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (a)

7. In actual practice, the Carnot cycle cannot be
realized because
(a) Very high pressure developed in the cylinder
(b) High volume ratios in the cylinder
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (c)

8. Otto cycle consists of sets of processes
(a) Adiabatic and constant volume
(b) Adiabatic and constant pressure
(c) Isothermal and constant pressure
(d) Isothermal and constant volume
ANSWER: (a)

9. Entropy of the universe tends to
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) None of the above.
ANSWER: (a)

10. Entropy of water at 0° C is assumed to be
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (a)

11. The Carnot cycle consists of two adiabatic
processes and
(a) Two isothermal processes
(b) Two constant pressure processes
(c) Two constant volume processes
(d) One constant pressure processes
ANSWER: (a)

   12. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
(a) Petrol engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Reversible engine
(d) Irreversible engine
ANSWER: (c)

13. Number of processes in a Rakine cycle are
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
ANSWER: (c)

14. A Stirling cycle consists of
(a) Two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
(b) Two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
(c) Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
(d) Two isothermal and two constant pressure Processes
ANSWER: (c)

15. If other factors are constant, with increase in the
temperature of source, the efficiency of cannot engine
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Depend on temperature ratio
ANSWER: (a)


16. If other factors are constant, with increase in the
temperature of sink, the efficiency of Carnot engine
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) None of the above.
ANSWER: (b)

17. Carnot engine is irreversible due to
(a) Friction between moving parts
(b) Losses from working fluid in transit
(c) High speed
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
ANSWER: (d)

18. Otto cycle is a theoretical cycle, on which
(a) Only petrol engine run
(b) Only diesel engine run
(c) Only gas engines run
(d) Petrol and gas engine runs
ANSWER: (d)

   19. Compression ratio is
(a) Total volume/swept volume
(b) Swept volume/total volume
(c) Swept volume/clearance volume
(d) Total volume/clearance volume.
ANSWER: (d)

20. Diesel cycle consists of
(a) Two adiabatic and two constant volume processes
(b) Two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
(c) Two adiabatic, one constant pressure and one constant volume processes
(d) Two isothermal, one constant pressure and one constant volume processes
ANSWER: (c)

21. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency
Of diesel cycle as compared to otto cycle is
(a) Less
(b) More
(c) Equal
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (a)

22. The compression ratio for diesel engine is
(a) 3 to 6
(b) 5 to 8
(c) 15 to 20
(d) 20 to 30
ANSWER: (c)

23. In Carnot cycle, heat is rejected at constant
(a) Volume
(b) Pressure
(c) Temperature
(d) Entropy
ANSWER: (c)

24. The areal of p-V diagram for a Carnot cycle represents
(a) Heat supplied
(b) Heat rejected
(c) Work done
(d) Temperature drop
ANSWER: (c)

25. In Carnot cycle, the algebraic sum of the entropy
changes for the cycle is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (c)

Earth Science Objective Question Paper

Earth Science Objective Question Paper
Geology Sample MCQ Paper
1. For a simple gas turbine cycle, the work ratio
depends upon
(a) Pressure ratio
(b) Minimum cycle temperature
(c) Maximum cycle temperature
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (d)

2. Vander Waal’s equation
(a) Has three roots of identical value at the critical point.
(b) Is valid for all pressures and temperatures
(c) Is valid for diatomic gases only
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (a)

3. Maxwell ’s relations are valid for
(a) All solid, liquid or gas
(b) Homogeneous and heterogeneous systems.
(c) Compressible substances
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (c)

4. Generalized compressibility chart is valid for
(a) Inert gases only
(b) Air
(c) Diatomic gases only
(d) Large variety 0f gases
ANSWER: (d)

5. Linda’s liquefier is based on the principle of
(a) Isothermal expansion
(b ) Adiabatic expansion
(c) Joule-Thomson effect
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (b)

6. Which of the following is not a constituent of
coal ?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Manganese
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Carbon
ANSWER: (b)

7. Calorific value for coal (in kcal/kg) is
(a) 1000-2500
(b) 2500-4000
(c) 4000 - 7000
(d) 5000 – 8000
ANSWER: (c)

8. Variety of coal having highest calorific value is
(a) Steam coal
(b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous coal
(d) Anthracite coal
ANSWER: (c)

9. Fuel generally used in steam boilers is
(a) Hard coke
(b) Coking bituminous coal
(c) Non-coking bituminous coal
(d) Pulverized coal
ANSWER: (c)

10. Fuel generally used in blast furnace for exciting pig iron is
(a) Hard coke
(b) Coking bituminous coal
(c) Non-coking bituminous coal
(d) Pulverized coal
ANSWER: (a)

11. Steam coal is
(a) Coking bituminuous coal
(b) Non-coking bituminuous coal
(c) Pulverised coal
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (b)

12. When the finely ground coal is moulded under
pressure with or without a binding material, the
fuel produced is
(a) Coke
(b) Wood charcoal
(c) Bituminuous coal
(d) Briquetted coal
ANSWER: (d)

13. By carbonisation of coal at 500° to 700° C, the
fuel obtained is
(a) Soft coke
(b) Hard coke
(c) Bituminuous coal
(d) Briquetted coal
ANSWER: (a)

14. Maxwell ’s relations are valid for
(a) Closed system only
(b ) Thermodynamic system in equilibrium
(c) All processes
(d) Transient conditions only
ANSWER: (b)

15. Principle constituents of fuel are
(a) Oxygen and hydrogen
(b) Carbon and hydrogen
(c) Sulphur and hydrogen
(d) Sulphur and oxygen
ANSWER: (b)

16. Amount of heat generated per kg of fuel is known as
(a) Higher calorific value
(b) Lower calorific value
(c) Calorific value
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (c)

17. Variety of coal having lowest calorific value is
(a) Steam coal
(b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous coal
(d) Anthracite coal
ANSWER: (b)

18. Natural solid fuel is
(a) Coke
(b) Anthracite coal
(c) Wood
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (c)

19. Fuel generally used in cement industry and metallurgical process is
(a) Hard coke
(b) Coking bituminous coal
(c) Non-coking bituminous coal
(d) pulverized coal
ANSWER: (d)
20. Coking is
(a) Burning of coal in furnace
(b ) Formation of lumps or masses of coke in boiler furnace
(c) Heating of coal in absence of air driving carbon
and leaving behind the residue of carbon.
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (a)

21. When coal is strongly heated continuously for
42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed
Vessel, the process is known as
(a) Coking
(b) Cacking
(c) Carbonization
(d) Atomization
ANSWER: (c)

22. Average calorific value for bituminuous coal is
(a) 4600kcal/kg
(b) 5500kcal/kg
(c) 6000 kcal/kg
(d) 8000 kcal/kg
ANSWER: (d)

23. The fuel produced when the wood-is heated with
a limited supply of air to a temperature- equal or
more than 280° C, is
(a) Coke
(b) Wood charcoal
(c) Bituminuous coal
(d) Briquetted coal
ANSWER: (c)


24. By carbonisation of coal at 900° to 1100° C, the
fuel obtained is
(a) Soft coke
(b) Hard coke
(c) Bituminuous coal
(d) Briquetted coal
ANSWER: (a)

25. Uranium-233 is produced
(a) As basic raw material
(b) By neutron irradiation of
(c) By neutron irradiation of thorium
(d) Artificially
Answer (c)

English Free Online Solved Test Paper

English Free Online Solved Test Paper
Bank Clerical English Objective Test
 Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in
meaning to the given word.
1. INTRANSIGENT
(a) Ever-ready
(b) Faithful
(c) Flexible
(d) Obedient
Answer: (c)

2. COMPETITION
(a) Rivalry
(b) Compromise
(c) Monopoly
(d) Contest
Answer: (c)

3. INIMICAL
(a) Friendly
(b) Cheerful
(c) Neutral
(d) Emotional
Answer: (a)

4. INTRICATE
(a) Foolish
(b) Simple
(c) Straight forward
(d) Easy
Answer: (c)

5. DORMANT
(a) Active
(b) Modern
(c) Permanent
(d) Transient
Answer: (a)

6. EQUANIMITY
(a) Excitement
(b) Duplicity
(c) Dubiousness
(d) Resentment
Answer: (a)

7. OBFUSCATE
(a) Simplify
(b) Explain
(c) Describe
(d) Clarify
Answer: (d)

8. HAMSTRINGH
(a) Strengthen
(b) Enlarge
(c) Stimulate
(d) Awaken
Answer: (a)

9. DESTINY
(a) Vulnerability
(b) Chance
(c) Self-dependence
(d) Fate
Answer: (c)

10. SHAME
(a) Glorify
(b) Exalt
(c) Dignity
(d) Enshrine
Answer: (b)

11. AGONY
(a) Pleasure
(b) Bliss
(c) Ecstasy
(d) Fear
Answer: (c)

12. VIE
(a) Guard
(b) Maintain
(c) Discover
(d) Yield
Answer: (d)

13. SUBSERVIENT
(a) Aggressive
(b) Dignified
(c) Straight forward
(d) Supercilious
Answer: (b)

14. LUXURY
(a) Sadness
(b) Treachery
(c) Duplicity
(d) Austerity
Answer: (d)

15. DEFECTION
(a) Resignation
(b) Invitation
(c) Joining
(d)Co-operation
Answer: (c)

16. PUNCTILIOUS
(a) Irregular
(b) Fussy
(c) Careless
(d) Curious
Answer: (c)

17. SHAMEFUL
(a) Naked
(b) Brazen
(c) Wanton
(d) Unblushing
Answer: (b)

18. BENEVOLENCE
(a) Contempt
(b) Malevolence
(c) Hatred
(d) Derision
Answer: (b)

19. CELIBATE
(a) Profligate
(b) Reprobate
(c) Extravagant
(d) Prodigal
Answer: (b)

20. CONSOLIDATE
(a) Isolate
(b) Weaken
(c) Divide
(d) Identify
Answer: (b)

21. LIABILITY
(a) Assumption
(b) Exemption
(c) Consumption
(d) Presumption
Answer: (b)

22. OVERWROUGHT
(a) Alert
(b) Alive
(c)Excited
(d) Calm
Answer: (d)

23. BALMY
(a) Hard
(b) Genuine
(c) Mild
(d) Fragrant
Answer: (a)

24.  PROBLEM
(a) Reply
(b) Solution
(c) Answer
(d) Resolution
Answer: (b)

25. MODERATE
(a) Radical
(b) Revolutionary
(c) Nihilist
(d) Anarchist
Answer: (c)

Bank PO English Practice Test

Bank PO English  Practice Test
English  Language Sample Questions

 In the following questions, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

1. CREDENCE
(a) Preference
(b) Credit
(c) Assurance
(d) Belief
ANSWER :(b)

2. EMPIRICAL
(a) Spiritual
(b) Royal
(c) Practical
(d) Theoretical
ANSWER : (c)

3. THWARTED
(a) Accepted
(b) Opposed
(c) Diverted
(d) Advocated
ANSWER: (b)

4. PRATTLE
(a) Construct
(b) Loiter
(c) Chatter
(d) Meditate
ANSWER: (c)

5.COY
(a) Beautiful
(b) Sweet
(c) Talented
(d) Shy
ANSWER: (d)

6. GRIPE
(a) Complaint
(b) Journey
(c) Resentment
(d) Satisfaction
ANSWER: (a)

7. PROCURE
(a) Obtain
(b) Endanger
(c) Incur
(d) Rescue
ANSWER: (a)

   8. COMMENSURATE
(a) Appropriate
(b) Beginning
(c) Proportionate
(d) Measurable
ANSWER : (c)

9. DAUNT
(a) Detain
(b) Annoy
(c) Abuse
(d) Intimidate
ANSWER :  (d)

10. IMMACULATE
(a) Spotless
(b) Dirty
(c) Shining
(d) Clean
ANSWER : ( a)

11. DISPARAGE 
(a) Belittle
(b) Compare
(c) Discourage
(d) Separate
ANSWER : ( a)

12. PROLIFERATE
(a) Assist
(b) Proclaim
(c) Generate
(d) Support
ANSWER  : ( c)

13. MUNDANE              
(a) Global
(b) Worldly
(c) Luxurious
(d) Spiritual
ANSWER  : ( b)

14. GRAPHIC           
(a) Vague
(b) Distinct
(c) Vivid
(d) Conspicuous
ANSWER  : ( c)

15. INTERROGATE        
(a) To interfere
(b) To question
(c) To stop
(d) To enter the gate
ANSWER  : ( b)

16. QUIP 
(a) Comment
(b)  Injury
(c) Blow
(d) Joke
ANSWER : ( d)

17. JEOPARDY
(a) Enmity
(b) Danger
(c) Adventure
(d) Magic
ANSWER : ( b)

18. PETPIFOGGING
(a) Lenient
(b) Unimportant
(c) Stable
(d) Strong
ANSWER : ( b)

19. PERSPICACITY
(a) Bad
(b) Shrewd
(c) Hazy
(d) Clear
ANSWER : ( b)

20. BEWAII
(a) Envy
(b) Accuse
(c) Tear apart
(d)Lament
ANSWER : ( d)

21. ABSGLVE
(a) Exonerate
(b) Consume
(c) Maltreat
(d) Engage
ANSWER : ( a)

22. CONSTRUE
(a) Interpret
(b) Scatter
(c) Confuse
(d) Unite
ANSWER : (a)

23. INORDINATE
(a) Extraordinary
(b) Inanimate
(c) Subordinate
(d) Excessive
ANSWER  : ( d)

24. SIMULATE
(a) Presume
(b) Warn
(c) Imitate
(d) Take
ANSWER : (c)

MP Court Judicial Solved Law Examination

 MP Court Judicial Solved Law Examination
Law Practice MCQ Paper
1. Tender is—
(A) An offer
(B) An invitation to offer
(C) A counter offer
(D) A promise
Ans:-B


2. A contract is not frustrated—
(A) By commercial impossibility
(B) By imposition of government restriction or order
(C) By destruction of subject-matter of contract
(D) By death or incapability of party when contract is of the personal services
Ans:-A

3. An agent can be appointed by—
(A) A minor of sound mind
(B) A major of sound mind
(C) Any person of sound mind
(D) Any major of sound or unsound mind
Ans:-B

4. X enters into a contract with Y, for which Y is guilty of fraud. X can—
(A) Set aside the contract but cannot recover damages
(B) Only recover damages
(C) Set aside the contract and can recover damages also
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C


5. Novation of a contract means—
(A) Renewal of original contract
(B) Substitution of a new contract in place of original contract
(C) Alteration of contract
(D) Revision of contract
Ans:-B

6. Which of the following do not fall under the meaning of ‘Revenue Officer’?
(A) Collector
(B) Commissioner
(C) Superintendent of land records
(D) President Board of Revenue
Ans:-D


7. Under section 44 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, an appeal from the origina1 order of
Commissioner lies to—
(A) District Judge
(B) Settlement Commissioner
(C) High Court
(D) Board of Revenue
Ans:-D


8. From an order passed in review, varying or reversing any order, in M.P. Land Revenue Code—
(A) Only a writ petition lies before High Court
(B) Review order in final
(C) Only revision lies
(D) Appeal lies as in case of original order
Ans:-C


9. All revenue officers in a division shall be subordinate to—
(A) Commissioner
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Board of Revenue
Ans:-A

10. Clerical errors which have been made in. the record-of-rights may at any time be corrected or cause to corrected by the—
(A) Revenue Inspector
(B) Patwari
(C) Tehsildar
(D) Sub-Divisional Officer
Ans:-C


11. The following shall be deemed to be a lease of the land—
(A) Grant of right merely to cut grass
(B) To graze cattle
(C) Any arrangement whereby a person cultivate any land of a Bhumiswami on condition of his giving a specified share of the produce of the land, to the Bhumiswami
(D) To grow ‘Singhara’
Ans:-C


12. Any objections to interrogatories may be taken on the ground that it is—
(A) Irrelevant
(B) Scandalous
(C) Not exhibited bonafide
(D) All or any of those
Ans:-D


13. Mohan residing in Mumbai beats Sohan in Delhi. Sohan may sue Mohan—
(A) Only in Mumbai
(B) Only in Delhi
(C) Either in Mumbai or in Delhi
(D) None of these
Ans:-C


14. In case of failure of filing the written statement within thirty days, the defendant can be allowed to file the same on such other day specified by the court for reasons recorded in writing, which shall not be later than—
(A) 45 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 120 days
of summons
Ans:-C

15. Pleading means—
(A) Plaint only
(B) Written statement only
(C) Plaint and written statement
(D) Plaint, written statement and replication
Ans:-C


16. Documents which are meant for cross- examination of a witness of the other party or meant for refreshing the memory of the witness may be produced—
(A) At or before the settlement of issues
(B) After the settlement of issues
(C) At any time when they are required
(D) Along with pleadings
Ans:-C


17. Period of detention in civil imprisonment, as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction shall not exceed—
(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year
Ans:-B


18. Caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of—
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 120 days
Ans:-C

19. Age of minor for kidnapping should be—
(A) Under 16 years
(B) Under 18 years
(C) Under 16 years of age if a male and under 18 years of age if a female
(D) Under 21 years of age if a male and under 18 years of age if a female
Ans:-C


20. If the offence be punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine—
(A) Has to be simple
(B) Has to be rigorous
(C) Can be rigorous
(D) No imprisonment
Ans:-A


21. The right of private defence of the body—
(A) Commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues as long as such apprehension of the danger to the body Continues.
(B) Commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues even after that apprehension ceases
(C) Commences only when the assault is actually done and continues during the period of assault
(D) Commences only when the assault is actually done and continues even after the assailant has left
Ans:-A

22. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Information in cognizable offence                                     —Section 154
(B) Police Officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses —Section 161
(C) Search by Police Officer                                                     —Section 166
(D) Cases to be sent to Magistrate when evidence is sufficient —Section 171
Ans:-A


23. Who of the following cannot claim maintenance under Section-125(4) of the Cr. P.C.?
(A) Wife living in adultery
(B) Wife living separately by mutual consent
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Ans:-C

24. Who among the following is not entitled to claim maintenance under Section-125 Cr. P. Code?
(A) Divorced wife so long as she does not marry
(B) Unmarried sister
(C) Adoptive mother
(D) Illegitimate minor child
Ans:-B


25. A report of person arrested without warrant shall be given by the Officer-in-charge of Police Station to—
(A) Only District Magistrate
(B) Only Sub-divisional Magistrate
(C) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
(D) Either to the District Magistrate or Sub- divisional Magistrate
Ans:-D

Free Online Test English Lang. Solved Questions

Free Online Test  English Lang. Solved Questions
 English MCQ Paper

Directions: Select the one which can best replace the italicized word in the sentence without changing
the meaning of the sentence.

1. Many species of animals have become extinct during the last hundred years.
(a) Feeble
(b) Aggressive
(c) Scattered
(d) Non-existent
ANSWER: (d)

2. The community is agog with speculation about the fate of the money collected.
(a) Excited
(b) Worried
(c) Depressed
(d) Annoyed
ANSWER: (a)

3. He was drawn to the vortex of politics at a very early age.
(a) Whirlpool
(b) Field
(c) Arena
(d) Hell
ANSWER: (a)

4. He enjoys vicarious authority.
(a) Tenuous
(b) Limited
(c) Delegated
(d) Wide
ANSWER: (c)

5. If you lack in magnanimity, all your wealth and luxury is useless.
(a) Planning
(b) Purposiveness
(c) Management
(d) Generosity
ANSWER: (d)

6. They tolerated him though they disliked his craven behaviour.
(a) Silly
(b) Cowardly
(c) Indecent
(d) Mean
ANSWER: (b)

7. The antidote to these problems is hard to find.
(a) Remedy for
(b) Consequence of
(c) Cause for
(d) Result of
ANSWER: (a)

8. l am quite content to stay here.
(a) Eager
(b) Happy
(c) Frightened
(d) Determined
ANSWER: (b)

9. The maxi vehemently denied all the charges of corruption that were leveled against him.
(a) Devoutly
(b) Hysterically
(c) Forcefully
(d) Serenely
ANSWER: (c)

10. Those who man government-run shops also have their palm greased.
(a) Control
(b) Operate
(c) Administer
(d) Rule
ANSWER: (b)

11. Despite his pompous style and gestures, the audience failed to evince any
interest in his lecture.
(a) Display
(b) Hide
(c) Develop
(d) Take
ANSWER: (a)

12. When he returned he was accompanied by a sprightly young girl.
(a) Sportive
(b) Intelligent
(c) Lively
(d) Beautiful
ANSWER: (c)

13. lt was presumptuous of him to make a remark in the assembly.
(a) Ridiculous
(b) Unthoughtful
(c) Self-confident
(d) Ambiguous
ANSWER: (c)
14. It is quite unseemly that person should so behave with his elders.
(a) Childish
(b) Ugly
(c) Discourteous
(d) Improper
ANSWER: (d)

15. It is a popular fallacy that all man-eaters are old and mangy.
(a) Observation
(b) Belief
(c) Fact
(d) Illusion
ANSWER: (b)

16. Malice is a feeling that we should always avoid.
(a) Envy
(b) Cruelty
(c) Spite
(d) Hatred
ANSWER: (c)

17. He deserved the accolade he received.
(a) Comment
(b) Honor
(c) Appreciation
(d) Blame
ANSWER: (c)

18. The notice said that the meeting would begin precisely at 9.00 a.m.
(a) Concisely
(b) Approximately
(c) Exactly
(d) Accurately
ANSWER: (c)

19. The ascending temperature in many parts of the world confirms global
warming which is an environmental hazard
(a) Rising
(b) Falling
(c) Shooting
(d) Mounting
ANSWER: (a)

20. He was sentenced to four years imprisonment.
(a) Punished
(b) Acquitted
(c) Assigned
(d) Convicted
ANSWER: (a)

21. He died as an impecunious man in a charitable hospital
(a) Innocent
(b) Ignorant
(c) Faultless
(d) Having no money
ANSWER: (d)

22. The British levied unusually high taxes on export of Indian goods.
(a) Implemented
(b) Stipulated
(c) Imposed
(d) Enacted
ANSWER: (c)

23. Many of his acquaintances avoid him because he is so garrulous.
(a) Proud
(b) Unreasonable
(c) Talkative
(d) Quarrelsome
ANSWER: (c)

24. Your explanation that your social commitments tie you down, does not convince me
(a) Duties
(b) Responsibilities
(c) Restrictions
(d) Obligations
ANSWER: (d)

25. Her today’s story was merely an exaggeration of what happened before my eyes.
(a) Overstatement
(b) Reproduction
(c) Falsehood
(d) Understatement
ANSWER. (a)

Bank Clerical English Model Test Paper

Bank Clerical English Model Test Paper
English Test for Preli. Exams
Choose the one which can replace the word printed in bold in the sentence without changing the
meaning of the sentence.

1. She is really a fantastic girl.
(a) Wonderful
(b) Charming
(c) Beautiful
(d) Intelligent
ANSWER : (a)

2. The old man was fond of giving homilies whenever we went to him with a problem.
(a) Alternatives
(b) Advice
(c) Suggestions
(d) Sermon
ANSWER : (d)

3. The soldier displayed exceptional courage and saved the Major from the enemy’s hand.
(a) New
(b) Strange
(c) Abnormal
(d) Unusual
(e) Avoidable
ANSWER : (d)

4. If you want the quality of your writings, to improve then avoid redundant words
(a) Unwilling
(b) Mistaken
(c) Wrong
(d) Repetitive
ANSWER : (d)

5. In order to tarnish the public image of his opponent, he has got a mendacious story
planted in the local newspaper.
(a) False
(b) Fabricated
(c) Imaginary
(d) Horrible
ANSWER : (a)

6. A civilized Roman banquet was a thing of great richness, style and decorum.
(a) Palace
(b) Feast
(c) Ornament
(d) Table
ANSWER : (b)

7. He listened to her mellifluous music under the genial influence of wine.
(a) Heavy
(b) Stressing
(c) Drowsy
(d) Sympathetic
ANSWER : (b)

8. The fishing boat pulled away from the wharf and chugged smoothly down the bay.
(a) Harbor
(b) Shore
(c) Quay
(d) Anchor
ANSWER : (c)

9. The aberration in the Indian economy can be attributed to short-sightedness
of its political masters
(a) Deviation
(b) Steadfastness
(c) Privilege
(d) Procrastination
ANSWER : (a)

10. India has too often to fulminate against Pakistanis role in aiding and abetting
acts of militancy on her soil.
(a) Think
(b) Consider
(c) Conspire
(d) Protest
ANSWER : (d)

11. The accident occurred due to his lapse.
(a) Haste
(b) Error
(c) Ignorance
(d) Carelessness
ANSWER : (b)

12. It was incumbent on him to report the matter at once.
(a) Pointless
(b) Depending
(c) Pressing
(d) Optional
ANSWER : (c)

13. Only my neighbor succoured me during my illness.
(a) Nourished
(b) Treated
(c) Aided
(d) Attended
ANSWER : (c)

14. As they whispered, I felt awkward in their company.
(a) Inconvenient
(b) Clumsy
(c) Ashamed
(d) Embarrassed
ANSWER : (d)

15. He tried to cajole her, but it was in vain.
(a) Enjoin
(b) Coax
(c) Rejoice
(d) Inspire
ANSWER : (b)

16. He was annoyed at his flippant remark.
(a) Discourteous
(b) Hitter
(c) Humorous
(d) Casual
ANSWER : (a)

17. The magazine was embellished with amusing articles.
(a) Filled
(b) Replete
(c) Adorned
(d) Sprinkled
ANSWER : (c)

18. Summit neglected to remit the fees in time and therefore had to pay a fine.
(a) Exempted
(b) Refused
(c) Failed
(d) Promised
(e) Obstructed
ANSWER : (c)

19. ‘To be or not to be’ was the dilemma of Hamlet.
(a) Question
(b) Obsession
(c) Problem
(d) Helplessness
(e) Confusion
ANSWER : (e)

20. War always has a baneful effect on the people of a nation.
(a) Unpleasant
(b) Foul
(c) Pernicious
(d) Harmful
ANSWER : (c)

21. His endeavors proved fruitful.
(a) Justified
(b) Futile
(c) Efficient
(d) Productive
ANSWER : (d)

22. The boy was chided for his impertinence.
(a) Praised
(b) Beaten
(c) Applauded
(d) Rebuked
ANSWER : (d)

23. The problem is tedious to tackle.
(a) Easy
(b) Difficult
(c) Tiring
(d) Troublesome
ANSWER : (c)

24. The time is spent in the library was the most rewarding one.
(a) Precious
(b) Serviceable
(c) Profitable
(d) Paying
ANSWER : (c)

25. The kingdom suffered a constant threat from certain predatory tribes.
(a) Wild
(b) Violent
(c) Rebellious
(d) Plundering
ANSWER : ( d)

Rajasthan Gk test

Rajasthan Gk test
Rajasthan GK Question
G.K. Objective Test on Rajasthan
1. Rajasthan is bordered by Pakistan to the .....
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
2. Rajasthan is bordered by Gujarat to the .....
(a) southeast
(b) northeast
(c) southwest
(d) northeast
3. Rajasthan is bordered by Madhya Pradesh to the ...
(a) southeast
(b) northeast
(c) southwest
(d) northeast
4.  ..... to the northeast of Rajasthan State
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujrat
(c) Pakistan
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
5. Rajasthan covers .... of India
(a) 8.4 %
(b) 9.4 %
(c) 10.4 %
(d) 11.4 %
6.When  Rajasthan state was established?
(a) 1 November 1956
(b) 2 November 1956
(c) 3 November 1956
(d) 4 November 1956
7. How many districts are there in Rajasthan state ?
(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 33
(d) 34
8.  Rajasthan covers  an area of ....342,239 square kilometres (132,139 sq mi) of India.
(a) 342,236 square kilometres
(b) 342,237 square kilometres
(c) 342,238 square kilometres
(d) 342,239 square kilometres
9. Who is the Governor of Rajasthan ?
(a) S.K Singh
(b) Margaret Alva
(c) Shivraj Patil
(d)  Prabha Rau
10.Who is the Chief Minister of Rajasthan ?
(a) Ashok Gehlot (INC)
(b) Vasundera Raje Scindia
(c) Bhairon  Singh Shekhawat
(d) Hari Dev Joshi
11. Rajasthan is divided into 33 districts and .... divisions
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
12., Rajasthan had a literacy rate of ..... (80.51% male and 52.66% female).
(a) 67.05%
(b) 67.06%
(c) 67.07%
(d) 67.08%
13. Where is The Desert National Park located in Rajasthan State ?
(a) Bharatpur
(b) Alwar a District
(c) Jaisalmer
(d)  Sawai Madhopur
14. The Ranthambore National Park located in .....is one of the finest Tiger Reserves in the Country .
(a) Alwar a District
(b) Jaisalmer
(c) Sawai Madhopur
(d)  Bharatpur
15. There are .... national park and wildlife sanctuaries in Rajasthan State.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans.
1. b
2. c
3. a
4. d
5. c
6. a
7. c
8. d
9. b
10. a
11. b
12. b
13. c
14. c
15. b

Indian History free Objective test

Indian History free Objective test
Free Indian History Online Practice Tests
Indian History - General Knowledge Questions and Answers
1. The battle of Mahabharata is believed to have been fought at
Kurukshetra for?
(A)       14 days
(B)       16 days
(C)       l8 days
(D)       20 days
2. The Mukteswara Temple is located at?
(A) Puri
(B) Belur
(C) Konark
(D) Bhubaneswar
3. Which king of the Gupta Dynasty was called the ‘Napoleon of India’?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta  ditya
(C) Sri Gupta
(D) Chandragupta-I
4. Between which two rulers was the First Battle of Panipat fought ?
(A) Akbar and Bahlol Lodi
(B) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Bairam Ichan and Sikandar Lodi
(D) Shah Jahan and Daulat Khan Lodi

5. Who is the author of Ain--i Akbani?
(A) Abul Fazal
(B)Abdus Samad
(C)Bairam Khan
(D)Raja Todarmal
6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists?
List-I
(a)        Peshwas
(b)        Gaekwads
(c)        Bhonsles
(d)        Holkers
List-II
1. Nagpur
2. Pune
3. Indore
4. Baroda

	a	b	c	d
(A)	2	4	1	3
(B)	1	3	2	4
(C)	2	4	3	1
(D)	4	3	2	1

7. Which reformer from Maharashtra was known as Lokhitavadi?
(A) Pandit Ramabai
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade `
(D) Gopal_Hari Deshmukh
8. ’Din-e-Ilahi’ of Akbar was not a success because?
(A) After Akbar, it was not patronized
(B) The Muslims did not accept other religious practices
(C) It was not suitably projected to the masses
(D) All the above
9. Who was the author of the book ’My Experiments with Truth' ?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Vinoba Bhave
10. Give the correct chronological order of the following events-
1. Formation of Muslim League
2. Formation of All India Untouchability League
3. Formation of All India Trade Union Congress
4. Formation of Indian National Congress
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
11. 80% of the coal in India comes from-
(A) Iharia and Raniganj
(B) Kantapalli and Singareni
(C) Singrauli and Korba
(D) Neyveli
12. Dry zone agriculture in India con tributes nearly 40% of the total-
(A) Commercial crops
(B) Fodder crops
(C) Food crops
(D) Plantation products
13. The precipitation consisting of a mixture of snow and rain is
(A) Sleet
(B) Smog
(C) Snow-line
(D) Fog
14. ’Operation Flood' was launched in 1970 to?
(A) Control floods
(B) Increase milk production
(C) Improve water sources
(D) Construct more dams
15. Photogrammetry is
(A) Portraying gradient
(B) Movement of setlines
(C) A method of solving geometrical problems
(D) Use of photography in  surveying and mapping
16. The spice State of India is?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
17. Jog Falls is found across the river?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Kabini
(C) Krishna
(D) Sharavati
18. Which of the following sea ports of India is the main outlet for
export of Tea ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kandla
(D) Chennai
19. The International Date Line  passes through the?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
20. Which of the following is not a form of precipitation ?
(A) Rainfall
(B) Snowfall
(C) Fog
(D) Hail
21. Which of the following is a Great Circle ?
(A) The Tropic of Cancer
(B) The Arctic Circle
(C) The Equator
(D) The Tropic of Capricorn
22. Tides in the sea have stored in them?
(A) Hydraulic energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Gravitational potential energy
(D) A combination of all the  above
23. Which component of blood is considered as the guard cell of
our body ?
(A) R.B.C.
(B) Platelets
(C) Plasma
(D) W.B.C.
24. Camel can walk easily in the desert, because-
(A) It has thick skin
(B) It can maintain water level in the body
(C) It has a layer of fat under
the skin to combat heat
(D) It has long legs with padded
paws
25. The function of arteries in our body is to
(A) Carry blood away from the heart
(B) Purify the blood
(C) Manufacture White Blood Corpuscles
(D) Carry blood back to the heart
26. Plants climb by means of?
(A) Tendrils
(B) Roots
(C) Pistil
(D) Branches
27. This term is associated with the Biology of silkworms.
(A) Apiculture
(B) Sericulture
(C) Sylviculture
(D) Pisciculture
28. Pick out the correct sequence of a simple land food chain
1. Deer
2. Grass
3. Tiger
(A) 1-2-3
(B) 3-2-1
(C) 1-3-2
(D) 2-1-3
29. Sex in human beings is deter mined by
(A) Vitamins
(B) Chromosomes
(C) Hormones
(D) Nutrients `
30. Deficiency of fluorine in drinking water causes?
(A) Dental caries (cavity)
(B) Dental fluorosis
(C) Skeletal fluorosis
(D) Goiter
31. In man urea is formed in?
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Nephron
(D) Urinary Bladder
32. The most important function of perspiration is?
(A) Get rid of the body wastes
(B) Regulate body temperature
(C) Regulate body wastes
(D) Lubricate the skin
33. ECG is the instrument that records
(A) Potential different of cardiac  muscles
(B) Rate of respiration
(C) Ratei of glomerular filtration
(D) Volume of blood pumped
34. Hot spot is an area having
(A) Wide variety of species
(B) Wealth of endemic species
(C) Rich variety of flora and fauna
(D) Conserving species in natural habitat
35. Electromagnet is used in a?
(A) Calling bell
(B) Computer
(C) Motor
(D) Washing machine
36. Kilo Watt Hour represents the unit for?
(A) Force
(B) Power
(C) Time
(D) Energy
37. A transformer is used to?
(A) Convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
(B) Convert alternating current into direct current
(C) Convert direct current to alternating current
(D) Transform alternating cur rent voltage
38. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights because of?
(A) Conduction
(B) Condensation
(C) Radiation
(D) Insolation
39. A stick partly dipped in water appears broken due to?
(A) Reflection
(B) Refraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Diffraction
40. What is condensation ?
(A) Change of gas into solid
(B) Change of solid into liquid
(C) Change of vapour into liquid
(D) Change of heat energy into cooling energy
41. Kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy in?
(A) Electric Motor
(B) Dynamo
(C) Electromagnet
(D) Ammeter
42. Floppy disk is an example of?
(A) Read Only Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Cache Memory
(D) Secondary Storage Memory
43. Which of the following com pounds are sprayed over clouds
to cause artificial rain ?
(A) Ice
(B) NaOH
(C) Agl
(D) NH4Cl
44. Iodine deficiency in diet is known to cause
(A) Rickets
(B) Obesity
(C) Scurvy
(D) Goiter
45.The refrigeration of the food articles keeps them fresh,
because-
(A) Water forms crystals
(B) Chemical reaction is slowed down
(C) Chemical reaction take place faster
(D) Bacteria are killed
46. Which substance is called the ’liquid gold' ?
(A) Gold as a liquid form
(B) Sodium as a liquid form
(C) Mustard oil
(D) Petroleum oil
47. Percentage of silver in German silver is?
(A) 25%
(B) 0%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
48. Which type of compounds are sugar and common salt ?
(A) Both are organic compounds
(B) Both are inorganic compounds
(C) Sugar is an organic com pound and common salt is an
inorganic compound
(D) Sugar is inorganic com pound and common salt is an
organic compound
49. The chemical name of Vitamin ’E’ is
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Retinol
(C) Tocopherol
(D) Thiamine
50. Which of the following gases has bleaching property?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Chlorine
(D) Hydrogen
Answers:

1	C
2	D
3	A
4	B
5	A
6	A
7	D
8	D
9	C
10	D
11	A
12	D
13	A
14	B
15	D
16	D
17	D
18	B
19	A
20	C
21	C
22	D
23	D
24	D
25	A
26	A
27	B
28	D
29	B
30	A
31	B
32	B
33	A
34	B
35	A
36	D
37	D
38	C
39	B
40	C
41	B
42	D
43	C
44	D
45	A
46	D
47	B
48	C
49	C
50	C

Jammu and Kashmir J&K GK test

Jammu and Kashmir J&K GK test
jammu and kashmir General Knowledge objective questions
Multiple Choice Questions for j&K Exams
1. When Jammu and Kashmir was Established ?
(a) 1947-10-25
(b) 1947-10-26
(c) 1947-10-27
(d) 1947-10-28

2. ...Districts are there in J & K State.
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23

3.  Who is the Current Chief minister of  J & K State?
(a) Mehbooba Mufti
(b) Mufti Mohammad Sayeed
(c) Ghulam Nabi Azad
(d) Ghulam Mohammad Shah

 4.Who became the first Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Bhagwan Sahay
(b) Dr Karan Singh
(c) Lakshmi Kant Jha
(d) Braj Kumar Nehru

5. Who said that if paradise is anywhere on the earth, it is here, while living in a houseboat on the mesmerizing Dal Lake ?
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan
(b) Akbar
(c) Maharaja Hari Singh
(d) Jahangir

6.  Who is the current Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) S.K. Sinha
(b) K. V. Krishna Rao
(c) Narinder Nath Vohra
(d) Girish Chandra Saxena

7. What is the Percentage of Literacy Rate in Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) 66.7%
(b) 67.7%
(c) 68.7%
(d) 69.7%

8.When did the Kargil War (Jammu and Kashmir) took place ? 
(a) 1997
(b) 1998 
(c) 1999
(d) 2000

9. The..... River is the only major Himalayan river which flows through the Kashmir valley.
(a) Indus
(b) Jhelum
(c) Tawi
(d) Ravi

10. Where is Gulmarg, a popular skiing destination of Jammu and Kashmir ?
(a) Bandipora District
(b) Jammu District
(c) Baramula district
(d) Srinagar District

11. Who was the last ruling Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir in India?
(a) Amar Singh
(b) Ranbir Singh
(c) Maharaja Hari Singh
(d) Pratap Singh

12. When The Simla Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan ?
(a) July 1, 1972
(b) July 2, 1972
(c) July 2, 1973
(d) July 3, 1973

13. Who was the General Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Indian Army during the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 ?
(a)  Lt. Gen. JFR Jacob
(b) Lt. General A. A. K. Niaz
(c) Lt. General Jagjit Singh Aurora
(d) Lieutenant General J. N. K. Niaz

14. How many tehsils in District Poonch in Jammu and Kashmir ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

15. Where is An historical fort named as Bhimgarh Fort north-west of Jammu situataed ?
(a) Poonch District
(b) Rajouri District
(c) Bandipora District
(d) Reasi District


Answers
1. b
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. d
6. c
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. c
11. c
12. b
13. c
14. b
15. d

Practice Paper For LIC exams :English

Practice Paper For LIC exams :English
English Language Practice Paper LIC AAO LIC AAO Practice Set
Directions : In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives,
choose the one which is the nearest in meaning to the given word.

1. INDICT
(a) Accuse
(b) Condemn
(c) Allege
(d) Reprimand
Answer. (a)

2. SUPERANNUATED
(a) Accepted
(b) Senile
(c) Retired
(d) Experienced
Answer. (c)

3. ENDORSEMENT S
(a) Reprimand
(b) Censure
(c) Commendation
(d) Reproach
Answer. (c)

4. STAMINA
(a) Endurance
(b) Intensity
(c) Eagerness
(d) Energy
Answer. (d)

5. BRASH
(a) Invective
(b) Rude
(c) Abusive
(d) Superficial
Answer. (b)

6. DECRY
(a) Deviate
(b)Despoil
(c) Demure
(d) Disparage
Answer. (d)

7. MOLLIFY
(a) Chastise
(b) Testify
(c) Rebuke
(d) Appease
Answer. (d)

8. RECALL
(a) Speak
(b) Receive
(c) Face
(d) Remember
Answer. (d)

9. JEOPARDY
(a) Magic
(b) Adventure
(c) Enmity
(d) Danger
Answer. (d)

10. ECONOMISE
(a) Accumulate
(b) Minimise
(c)Save
(d) Reduce
Answer. (c)

11. JUVENILE
(a) Hidden
(b) Young
(c) Humorous
(d) Tedious
Answer. (b)

12.VENTURE
(a) Entrust
(b) Risk
(c) Travel
(d) Adventure
Answer. (b)

13. IMRERTINENT
(a) Impudent
(b) Sceptical
(c) Thoughtless
(d) Irritable
Answer. (a)

14. IMPEDIMENT
(a) Passage
(b) Obstruction
(c) Fateful
(d) Destruction
Answer. (b)

15. LUEID
(a) Sensational
(b) Old
(c) Obscene
(d) Pale
Answer. (a)

16. MASTERPIECE
(a) Sample
(b) Wonder
(c) Miracle
(d) Model
Answer. (d)

17. ALERT
(a) Watchful
(b) Intelligent
(c) Observant
(d) Energetic
Answer. (a)

18. ARTICULATE
(a) Distinct
(b) Aggressive
(c) Wayward
(d) Confused
Answer. (a)

19. VEER
(a) Shift
(b) Dominate
(c) Delegate
(d) Concentrate
Answer. (a)

20. SUPERCILIOUS
(a) Indifferent
(b) Annoyed
(c)Haughty
(d) Angry
Answer. (c)

21. DEMIT
(a) Promote
(b) Judge
(c) Appoint
(d)Resign
Answer. (d)

22. BERSERK
(a) Clever
(b) Morose
(c) Cheerful
(d) Wild
Answer. (d)

23. GROTESQUE
(a) Fantastic
(b) Exaggerated
(c) Colourful
(d) Pompous
Answer. (a)

24. COUNSEL
(a) Correct
(b) Publish
(c) Oppose
(d) Advice
Answer. (d)

25. SUCCULENT A
(a) Fluid
(b) Sucking
(c) Juicy
(d) Sweet
Answer. (c)

Free Solved objective Questions on Fluid Mechanics

Free Solved objective Questions on Fluid Mechanics

1. A fluid is a substance that
(a) Always expands until it fills any container
(b) Has the same shear stress at a point
regardless of its motion
(c) Cannot remain at rest under action of any
shear force
(d) Cannot be subjected to shear forces
ANSWER: (b)

2. Length of mercury column at a place at an
altitude will vary with respect to that at ground
in a
(a) Linear relation
(b) hyperbolic relation
(c) Parabolic relation.
(d) Manner first slowly and then steeply
ANSWER: (d)

3. When power is transmitted through a considerable distance by means of water under
pressure, the maximum power is transmitted when frictional loss of head is
(a) One third of the total head supplied
(b) Half of the total head supplied
(c) 10% of the total head
(d) 17.7% 0f the total head.
ANSWER: (a)

4. A rotameter is a device used to measure
(a) Velocity of fluid in pipes
(b) Velocity of gauges
(c) Votex flow
(d) Flow of fluids
ANSWER: (d)

5. The continuity equation
(a) Expresses relationship between hydraulic
parameters of flow
(b) Expresses the relationship, between work and
energy
(c) Is based on Bernoulli’s theorem
(d) Relates the mass rate of flow along a stream
line.
ANSWER: (d)

6. Of the following, dimensionless parameter is
(a) Pressure coefficient
(b) Froude number
(c) Darcy Weisbach friction factor
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (d)

7. One dimensional flow
(a) Restricted to flow in a straight line
(b) Neglects changes in a transverse direction
(c) Steady uniform flow
(d) A uniform flow
ANSWER: (b)

8. Steady flow occurs when
(a) Pressure does not change along the flow
(b) Velocity does not change
(c) Conditions change gradually with time
(d) Conditions do not change with time at any point.
ANSWER: (d)

9. Equation Continuity of fluids is applicable only when the flow is
(a) Steady
(b) One dimensional
(c) Compressive
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (d)

10. If the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to point in magnitude and
direction as well as from instant, the flow is
(a) Uniform flow
(b) Steady flow
(c) Turbulent flow
(d) Laminer flow
ANSWER: (c)

11. In a turbulent flow in a pipe
(a) Reynolds number is greater than 10000
(b) Fluid particles move in straight lines
(c) Head loss varies linearly with flow rate
(d) Shear stress varies linearly with radius
ANSWER: (d)

12. In laminar flow, maximum velocity at the centre
Of pipe is how many times to the average velocity
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (a)

13. A sharp edged obstruction over which the flow
of a fluid takes place is
(a) Wear
(b) Notch
(c) Orifice
(d) None of these
ANSWER: (c)

14. The non-dimensional factor governing frictional resistance is
(a) Reynolds number
(b) Weber number
(c) Froude number
(d) Mach number
ANSWER: (d)

15. Non uniform flow occurs when
(a) Direction and magnitude of velocity at all
points are identical
(b) Velocity of successive fluid particles, at any
point, is same at successive periods of time
(c) Magnitude and direction of velocity do not
change from point to point in the fluid
(d) Velocity, depth, pressure, etc. changes point
to point in the fluid flow
ANSWER: (d)

16. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, it should
be installed in
(a) Vertical line
(b) Horizontal line
(c) Inclined line with upward flow
(d) In any direction and in any location
ANSWER: (d)

17. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes
equation are
(a) Gravity, pressure and viscous
(b) Gravity, pressure and turbulent
(c) Pressure, viscous and turbulent
(d) Gravity, viscous and turbulent
ANSWER: (a)

18. Reynolds number is significant in
(a) Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow,as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity,
gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (b)

Q.51. A streamline is defined as the line
(a) Parallel to central axis flow
(b) Parallel to outer surface to pipe g
(c) Of equal velocity in a flow
(d) Along which the pressure drop is uniform
ANSWER: (c)

19. The cepoletti weir functions as if it were a
following notch without end contractions
(a) Triangular notch
(b) Trapezoidal notch
(c) Rectangular notch
(d) Parallelogram notch
ANSWER: (c)

20.Match number is significant in
(a) Supersonics, as with projectiles and jet
propulsion
(b) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow,
as with pipes, aircrafts wings, nozzles etc.
(c) Simultaneous motion through two fluids
where there is a surface of discontinuity
gravity force, and wave making effects, as
with ship’s hull
(d) All of the above
ANSWER: (a)

GK Test Bihar History MCQ Paper

GK Test Bihar History MCQ Paper
Practice Test Paper Based on Bihar History
1. Which  dynasty founded in 684 BC, ruled Magadha from the city of Rajgriha (modern Rajgir) ?
(a) Shishunaga dynasty
(b) Haryanka dynasty
(c) Rashtrakuta Dynasty
(d) Nanda Dynasty

2.  Who founded the city of Pataliputra which later became the capital of Magadha ?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Ajatashatru
(d) Ashoka

3. In 1540 who took over northern India from the Mughals ?
(a)  Sher Shah Suri
(b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c)  Ajatashatru
(d)  Bimbisara

4. When did the Battle of Buxar take  place ?
(a)  1761
(b) 1763
(c) 1764
(d) 1766

5. Who was the  king from Haryanka dynasty,  imprisoned his father to ascend the throne ?
(a) Maha Kosala
(b) Ajatashatru
(c) Prasenjit
(d) Bhattiya

6. Who  was the king of Anga kingdom ?
(a)   Duryodhana
(b)  Jarasandha
(c) Karana
(d) Shishupal

7. Who was the  king of Brihadrathas dynasty ?
(a)  Karana
(b) Shishupal
(c)  Bimbisara
(d)  Jarasandha

8.  Which of the following was the first capital of the kingdom of Magadha,  ?
(a)  Rajagriha
(b)  Pataliputra
(c)  Bakhtiarpur
(d) Avanti

9.  Which was the capital of the Licchavis and the Vajjian Confederacy ?
(a)  Bakhtiarpur
(b) Rajagriha
(c) Vaishali
(d) Pataliputra

10. Who was the son of Chandragupta Maurya ? ,
(a) Ashoka
(b) Dasharatha
(c) Devavarman
(d) Bindusara


ANSWERS
1. b
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. c
10. d

Free solved objective questions on Psychology

Free solved  objective questions on Psychology
Objective and Practice Questions for Psychology
Psychology objective questions and answers Solved Model test
1 ........used savings or relearning method as a  measure of retention.
(a) Hermann Ebbinghaus
(b) B.F. Skinner
(c) Jean Piaget
(c None of the above

2 .................refers to the degree to which incoming information is processed so that it can be tied to, or integrated with, existing memories.
(a) Perception
 (b) Elaboration
(c) Meaning
(d) None of the above
3................. is characterised by deficits in many intellectual abilities — memory, attention, Judgement and abstract thought, that can occur in aged people.
(a) Defensive amnesia
(b) Senile dementia
(c) Korsakoff syndrome
(d) None of the above

4. Adolescence is a time of searching, the objective is a sense of identity, an answer to the question, "who am I ? " was said by
(a) Sigmund Freud
(b) Erik Erikson
(c) Jean Piaget
(d) None of the above

5. What is earliest outward evidence of adolescence?
(a) The growth spurt
(b) The changed mentality
(c) Change in social behavior
(d)  None of the above

6. Technically, adolescence is the period from the beginning of sexual maturity to the completion of
(a) Mental growth
(b) Physical growth
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

7 The theory of ...............holds that the memories are not recalled because their retrieval would in some way be unacceptable to the peron, possibly because of the anxiety they would produce or the guilt they might activate.
(a) Recall
(b) Repression
(c) Recognition
 (d) None of the above

8. The technique used in the short-term memory is known as
(a) Free recall
(b) Reconstruction
(c) Recognition
(d) None of the above

9. Parents seem to place more restrictions on their teenage daughters than on their teenage sons, this restriction is a type of
(a) Control
(b) Harassment
(c) Protection
(d) None of the above

10. Identifying the exact nature of the communication between the DNA and RNA and between the RNA and the sequence of amino acids manufactured in the cell is known as the ........
(a) Decoding problem
(b) Coding problem
(c) Genetic code
(ci) None of these




Answers:

1d
2 b
3 b
4 b
5 a
6 b
7 b
8 a
9 c
10 b

Psychology MCQ test for Graduates PG in Psychology

Psychology MCQ test  for Graduates PG in Psychology
Free online MCQ Psychology
Objective question on Psychology
1. Tolman believed that information from the environment was worked over and elaborated into a tentative
pattern, indicating routes, paths and environmental relationships. Tolman was referring to
(a) Cognitive maps
(b) Mental rotation
(c) Memory traces
(d) Eidetic images

2 .............forgetting is caused by the actual decay of the memory trace.
(a) Trace-dependent
(b) Cue-dependent
(c) Loss of information
(d) None of the above



3. ___________ is a time of fast-paced change in the youngster’s ways of perceiving and interacting with the

world
(a) Neonatal
(b)Childhood
(c) Infancy
(d) None of the above

4. When females born with one X chromosome instead of the usual XX, it is known as
(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Cretinism
(d) None of the above


5. RNA contains sugar called ________
(a) Phosphate
(b) Adenine
(c) Thymine
() Ribose

6. The second breakthrough in modern genetics was the development of ultra-microscopic techniques, for
example
(a) Combined use of electron microscope
(ii) X-ray diffraction
(c) Psychopathology
(d) Both (a) and (b)

7 .............are partial and altered representations of what is in the world around us.
(a) Subjective organization
(b) Images
(c) Symbols
(d) None of these

8 The observation that in memory experiments using a list of items to be remembered, items at the beginning

and end of the list are remembered best, is called
(a) Primary effect
(b) Recency effect
(c) Serial-position effect
(d) None of the above


9...............is the process of gaining access to stored, coded information when it is needed.
(a) Retrieval
(b) Encoding
(c) Storage
(d) None of the above


10. Jean Piaget has developed the most detailed and comprehensive theory of cognitive development and he

called the approach as
(a) Empirical
(b) Rational
(c) Genetic epistemology
(d) None of the above
11. .......involves the ability to think through a number of possible strategies or ‘experiments’ and to decide

which one will yield the most information.
(a) Reflective thinking
(b) Positive thinking
(c) Assertive thinking
(d) None of the above

12. DNA makes several kinds of RNA. They are ..........
(a) Messenger RNA
(b) Transfer RNA
(c) Communication RNA
(d) only (a) and (b)

13. The ToT phenomenon indicates
(a) Tip of the tongue phenomenon
(b) Tip of the toe phenomenon
(c) Tip of the tail phenomenon
(d) None of the above

14. Which of the following is a mechanical device for presenting items to be remembered at a constant rate of speed?
(a) Memory scheme
(b) Memory scale
(c) Memory drum
(d) Memory trumpet

15 .......refers to any discrete unit of information.
(a) Chunk
(b) Data
(c) Encoding
(d) None of the above


16. Retrieval cues and reconstructive processes
are important factors in the
(a) Storage from memory
(b) “Read-out” from memory
(c) Recognise from memory
(d) None of these

17. The memories of specific things that have .happened to a person is called
(a) Episodic memory
(b) Semantic memory
(c) Long-term memory
(d) None of the above

18. Heavy drinking over a period of years can result, through vitamin B deficits and other chemical imbalances in irreversible brain damage known as
(a) Korsakoff syndrome
(b) Senile dementia
(c) Defensive amnesea
d) None of the above

19. The recovery of childhood memories under hypnosis is an example pointing to the
(a) Permanent nature of memory
(b) Retrieval of memory
(c) Recall of memory
(d) None of the above

20. Most human characteristics are determined by many sets of genes; they are called
(a) Dominant
(b) Recessive
(c) Polygenic
(d) None of the above
















Answers:

1 a
2 a
3 c
4 b
5 d
6 d
7. b
8  c
9 a
10 c
11 a
12 c
13 a
14  c
15 a

16 b
17  a
18 c
19 a
20 c 

Objective Questions on Electronics Engineering:Semiconductors

Objective Questions on Electronics Engineering:Semiconductors
Free questions for GATE SAIL ONGC and other exams
MCQ on Semiconductors

1. An electrically neutral  semiconductor
(i) has no majority carriers
(ii) has no minority carriers
(iii) has no free charge carriers
(iv) has equal amounts of positive and negative charges.

2.The process by which impurities are added to a pure semiconductor is
(i) Diffusing
(ii) Drift
(iii) Doping
(iv) Mixing

3. When holes leave the p-material to fill electrons in the n—material the process is called
(i) Mixing
(ii) Depletion
(iii) Diffusion
 (iv) Depletion

4. JCBO current is
(i) Small in silicon than in germanium transistors
(ii) increases with temperature
(iii) depends on base doping
(iv) depends on eb jn bias

5. Atomic bonding most common in semi conductor is
(i) Metallic
(ii) Ionic
(iii) Covalent
(iv) Chemical

6. When thermally generated holes & electrons gain enough energy from the reversed biased source of a

Zener diode to produce new current carriers it is called
(i) Avalanche Breakdown
(ii) Reverse Breakdown
(iii) Zener Breakdown
(iv) Low voltage eakdown

7. Depletion region in a pn diode is due to
(i) reverse biasing
(ii) forward biasing
(iii) An area created by  crystal doping
(iv) An area void of  current carriers
8. Conventional biasing of a bipolar transistor has
(i) EB forward biased & CB forward biased
(ii) EB reversed biased & CB forward biased
(iii)EB forward biased & CB reverse biased
(iv)EB reverse biased & CB reverse biased,
9. The emitter region in the NPN transistor is more heavily doped than base region so that
(i) flow across the base region will be mainly of holes
(ii) flow across the base regions will be mainly of electrons
(iii) base current is low
(iv) base current is high.

10. Barrier potential for silicon diode
(i) .3V
(ii) .4 V
(iii) .1 V
(iv) .7 V

11. When an atom either gains or loses an electron it is said to be
(i) ionized
(ii bonded
(iii) Excited
(v) an acceptor

12. A strong electric field across a p-N junction that causes covalent bonds to break apart
(i) It is called avalanche breakdown
(ii) It is called reverse breakdown
(iii) It is called Lever breakdown
(iv) It is called Low voltage breakdown

13. Depletion regioin in a pn junction diode
consists of
(i) Mobile donor ions
(ii) Mobile acceptor ions
(iii) Mobile donor & acceptor ions
(iv) majority cairiers
14. The largest current flow of a bipolar transistor occurs
(i) In the emitter
(ii) In the base
(iii) In the collector
(iv) through the collector base

15. Any semiconductor material has a valence of electrons V
(1) 4
(ii)6
(iii)8
(iv)3 or 5













Answers
1 iv
2.iii
3.iii
4. iii
5 iii
6. i
7 ii
8 iii
9 ii
10 iv

11 i
12.i
13.iii
14. i
15 i

CBSE Class 10 Question Bank mathematics Euclid’s Division Lemma

CBSE Class 10 Question Bank mathematics Euclid’s Division Lemma 
Questions on Euclid’s Division Lemma
 Objective Questions:
1.Euclid’s division lemma, states that for any two positive integers ‘a’ and ‘b’ we can find two whole numbers ‘q’ and ‘r’ such that a = b × q + r
what are permissible values of r?
a.0  or more  but less than b
b. 0  or more  but less than a
c  b  or more  but less than a
d. Between 0 and  infinity

 2.Euclid’s division lemma can be used to find the .............. of any two positive integers

a. HCF
b. Multiples
c  Both
d. None
 3.Euclid’s division lemma  is  not applicable for which value of b ?
a. Positive integer
b. Zero
c  Negative integer
d. All of these
4.Any  positive integer can be expressed as ?
a. 6q +1
b. 6q +3
c  6q+5
d. All of these

5.Product of 3 consecutive positive integers is always divisible by ?
a. 4
b. 5
c  6
d. 7

6.Using Euclid’s division lemma HCF of  455 and 42 can be  expressed as 

a. 455 = 42*9+77
b. 455 = 42*10+35
c  455 = 42*11 -7
d. 455 = 42*12 -49
7.Any positive integer is of the form............for  some integer q.
a. 3q
b.3q + 1
c  3q + 2
d. all of these

8.One out of any four consecutive integers is  always divisible by 5.

a. FALSE
b.TRUE
c  None of these
d. all of these

9. For any value of n,last digit of 6 ⁿ always ends with

a. 4
b  8
c  either 4 or 8
d.None of these
10. 4q+1 or 4q+3 , a positive integer is always
a. ODD
b  EVEN
c  None of these
d. all of these


Hot And Tough Questions:
 1.Prove that the product of two consecutive positive integers is always divisible by 2

2.Show that n ²- 1 is divisible by 8, if n is an odd positive integer.
 3.Show that one and only one out of n,n+2,n+4 is divisible by 3, where n is any positive integer.

4.prove that  for any value of n,12ⁿ cant have 5 as last digit

5. Use Euclid’s division lemma to show that the cube of any positive integer is of the form 9m, 9m + 1 or 9m + 8.
6.Prove that the product of three consecutive positive integers is divisible by 6.
7.Prove that one of every three consecutive integers is divisible by 3.
8.Use Euclid’s division lemma to show that the square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m +1 for some integer m.
9.Prove that  sum of any three consecutive integers is divisible by 3.
Answer
1:a
2.a
3.b
4.d
5. c
6. b
7 d
8. a
9. d
10. a