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Wednesday, July 25, 2012

MCQ Sample Test paper for UPSC PSC TGT PGT India Public administration

MCQ Sample Test paper for UPSC PSC TGT PGT India Public administration
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION MCQ TEST
Solved mcq's of Public Administration.
LATEST PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION MCQ TEST PAPER SET
1. Consider the following statements about Motivation—
1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals.
2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals.
3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
2. “Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism”. These views are assigned to whom?
(a) N. Umapathy
(b) Amilai Etzioni
(c) Deming
(d) Chris Argyris
Ans. (a)
3. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I List-II
(Book) (Author)
(a) Human Organization Likert 1. Rensis
(b) Theory of Social and Economic Organization 2. Elton Mayo
(c) New Patterns of Management Fayol 3. Hermry
(d) The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization 4. Max Weber
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
4. Which one of the following tenet in the trinity of Administration?
(a) Critical Theory
(b) Neo Taylorism
(c) Rational Theory
(d) Public Choice Theory
Ans. (c)
5. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following?
(a) Behaviour and attitude of a person
(b) Skill-set and compensation of an employee
(c) The leadership styles of two managers
(d) Motivational needs of two employees
Ans. (a)
6. In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory, which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Salary — Motivator
(b) Status — Hygiene factor
(c) Growth — Motivator
(d) Security — Hygiene factor
Ans. (a)
7. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Situational leadership theory — Heresy Blanchard
2. Path goal theory —Robert House
3. Leadership participation Model —The University of Michigan Studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly:
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
8. Assertion (A): ‘Economic Man’ is the product of traditional theory of motivation.
Reason (R): Material rewards make all organization members work harder
for more material benefits.
Ans. (c)
9. Assertion (A): Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow.
Reason (R): Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and
problem solving.
Ans. (d)
10. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred F. Fielder that helps determine which leadership style will be effective?
(a) Environmental pressures and workplace demands
(b) Leader-member relations
(c) Task structures
(d) Leader’s position power
Ans. (a)
11. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the cotes given below the lists—
List-I List-II
(a) Talcott Parsons 1.Creative Experience
(b) Frederick Herzberg 2.Inside Bureaucracy
(c) Anthony Downs 3.The Structure of Social Action
(d) M.P. Follett 4. Work and the Nature of Man
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (d)
12. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Subject) (Related to)
(a) Non programmed decisions 1. Lower-level mart
(b) Programmed decision 2. Upper-level managers
(c) Emphasis on data storage 3. Decision support system
(d) Emphasis on data manipulation 4. Management Information System
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (d)
13. Participative style of leadership became popular during and after the era of which one of the following?
(a) Systems theory
(b) Behavioral theory
(c) Human Relations theory
(c) Scientific Management theory
Ans. (c)
14. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A.Etzioni?
(a) Programme, Organizational and Normative
(b) Budgetary, Personnel and Utilitarian
(c) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian
(d) Coercive, Normative and Organizational
Ans. (c)
15. Who among the following are authors of the well-known work—Administrative Behaviour: A Study of Decision-Making Processes in Administrative Organization ?
(a) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard
(b) H.A. Simon and Chester Barnard
(c) F Herzberg and A. Maslow
(d) A. Maslow and Chester I. Barnard
Ans. (b)
16. What is/are the chief barrier(s) to interpersonal communication?
1. Cultural
2. Perceptual
3. Ideological
4. Technological
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
17. Why has the idea of organizational leadership been largely avoided in mainstream organization theory in social-psychological tradition?
1. The idea goes against the open model.
2. It is against the closed model.
3. It ascribes special characteristics to some members in an organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) l and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans. (c)
18. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I List-II
(a) Job enrichment 1. H. Simon
(b) Zone of acceptance 2. Etzioni
(c) Zone of acceptance 3. Chester Barnard
(d) Mixed scanning 4. Maslow
5. F. ehrzberg
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 3 2
(b) 2 1 4 5
(c) 5 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 5
Ans. (c)
19. Consider the following statements— In the ambiguous and uncertainty-ridden decision world, formal rationalist decision theories are substituted by the sense-making perspective under which—
1. Preferences may be easy to identify.
2. Choices may be contradictory and unclear.
3. Decision makers may have to construct and shape preferences.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) l and 3 only
Ans. (d)
20. Herbert Simon identified four basic motivations of subordinates to accept the will of a superior. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) Rewards and sanctions
(b) Social disapproval
(c) Legitimacy
(d) Subordinate’s confidence in superior’s ability
Ans. (b)
21. In explaining administrative decision-making, Simon’s decision-theory focused on which one of the following?
(a) The single best choice made by the decision-maker
(b) The limits of information availability in the organization
(c) The constraints on computational abilities of the administrator
(d) Bounded rationality and Satisficing
Ans. (d)
22. While dealing with superior-subordinate communication, th of communication in public administration tends to neglect which one of the following?
(a) Emphasis on task directives
(b) Communication on organizational policy and procedures
(c) Communication on performance feedback from subordinates
(d) Superior’s managerial capacity
Ans. (c)
23. The behavioral approach led to administrative research on which of the following?
1. Motivation studies.
2. Decision making studies.
3. Organization
4. Behaviour of individuals in the organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) l, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following has/have been granted exemption from disclosure under the Right to Information Act, 2005 unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information?
1. Information in respect of intellectual property, the disclosure of which harm the competitive position ala third party.
2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
25. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office?
(a) By an order of the State Chief Information Commissioner
(b) By the Supreme Court of India
(c) By an order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed
(d) In a manner similar to the removal from his office of a judge of a High Court
Ans. (c)
26. Consider the following statements— Ethich Reforms Act, 1989 passed by the U.S. Congress
was an improvement over the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 in that—
1. It extended the provisions of the 1978 Act to the federal judiciary and legislature as well.
2. It created the Office of Personnel Management and Office of Government Ethics.
3. It led to the appointment of Special Prosecutor in the Department of Justice and a legal counsel in the Sentate.
4. It did none of the above except change the title of the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
27. Consider the following statements in context of the civil service in the U.K.
The English Committee (technically a part of the House of Commons Expenditure Committee) stressed in particular the need for
1. A complete overhaul of administrative training
2. More professionalism
3. Less control over Whitehall by ministers and by Parliament
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
28. In the U.K. the Citizen and the Administration Redress of Grievances was published by which Report?
(a) Whyatt Report
(b) Atkinson Report
(c) William Report
(d) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
Ans. (a)
29. The hallmark of French public administration has been its predilection for precision and technical solutions to problems. This characteristic feature is generally
attributed to which of the following?
1. Lack of natural consensus a distinct cultural trait.
2. A constant search for technical solution to governance problem.
3. Rejecting the notion that problems can be solved compromise.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below—
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
30. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I List-II
(a) Davis Committee 1.Political activities of Civil Servants
(b) Masterman Committee 2. Senior Executive Service
(c) Second Hoover Committee 3 Official Secrets Act
(d) Franks Committee 4. Method-II Codes:
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)
31. The Code of Ethics for public service developed by the American Society for Public Administration emphasizes which of the following?
1. Respect for public interest, Constitution and laws.
2. Personal integrity, professionalism and promotion of ethical organizations.
3. High salaries, quick promotions and uniform treatment for all public servants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
32. Who among the following established the Executive Office of the President of the U.S.A.?
(a) F. Roosevelt
(b) A. Jackson
(c) T. Jefferson
(d) C Washington
Ans. (a)
33. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I List-II
(Body/Feature) (Country)
(a) National Personnel Authority 1. United States of America
(b) Constitution contains only ‘Seven Articles’ 2. France
(c) Doctrine of Rule of Law 3. U.K.
(d) Commune- A unit of local self-government 4. Japan
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (b)
34. Which one of the following is not a/an approach/method/principle for organization development (OD)?
(a) Grid approach
(b) Survey feedback method
(c) Process consultation
(d) Peter principle
Ans. (d)
35. Which one among the following conducts the “Census of Central Government Employees” and publishes the Report thereof?
(a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme implementation, Government of India
(b) Directorate General of Employment and Training, Ministry of Labour, Government of India
(c) Planning Commission of India
(d) Registrar General of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India
Ans. (b)
36. Consider the following statements—
1. The Central Staffing Scheme for the. Central Government employees is operated by the Union Public Service Commission.
2. The Central Staffing Scheme pertains only to the officers from Group A Central Services only and it does not apply to officers from All India Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
37 Consider the following statements—
1. Functional departmentation ensures that core activities of the enterprise are defended by the top managers.
2. Departmentation by territory places more responsibility at lower levels.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
38. Assertion (A): Functional departmentation facilitates efficiency in the utilization of people.
Reason (R): Functional departmentation does not adhere to the principle of
occupational specialization.
Ans. (c)
39. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following constituent steps in organizing process of a public service unit?
1. Grouping various activities after factoring in available human and material resources.
2. Delegating to each group head the necessary authority.
3. Identifying and classifying the various activities.
4. Tying the group together after factoring in authority relationships.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2, 4, 3 and l
(b) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4, 2 and l
Ans. (b)
40. Preference theory or utility theory is employed for which one of the following functions in an organization?
(a) Job design
(b) Work measurement
(c) Decision under uncertainty
(d) Training program for new recruits
Ans. (c)
41. Consider the following statements about variable budgets—
1. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when operations are repetitive.
2. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when there is only a small number of different expenses.
3. Variable budgets are often quite expensive to prepare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
42. Consider the following statements— All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India,
1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to President of India.
2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State.
3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
Ans. (b)
43. Provisions of which f the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill?
1. The receipt of money c account of the public account of India.
2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
3. Alteration of any tax.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
44. During the presentation of the Union Budget as the Finance Minister of India, who among the following announced setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commission?
(a) P. Chidambaram
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Jaswant Singh
(d) Yashwant Sinha
Ans. (b)
45. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Feature Type of Budget
1. Allow no proper incentive for Incremental budget
managers to develop innovative ideas
2. Increases staff motivation Zero-based budget
3. The R&D Department is threatened Zero-based budget
whereas production department
4. The impact of change can be seen quickly Incremental budget
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) l and 4 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
46. Which one of the following enabled the French Civil Service to emerge as a national institution?
(a) French Revolution of 1789
(b) Introduction of merit principle of recruitment in 1847
(c) The Civil Service Act of 1946
(d) Introduction of General Grid System in 1948
Ans. (c)
47. Consider the following statements about budget—
1. Budget is a tool of legislative control over administration.
2. Budget is a tool of judicial control over administration.
3. Budget is a comprehensive plan document.
4. Budget is a tool of public control over public finance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
48. What did the Bhore Committee deal with?
(a) Technical education in India
(b) Public health in India
(c) Development of airports in India
(d) Development of ports in India
Ans. (b)

49. Consider the following statements—
1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 the Indian Legislature was made more representative and, for the first time, bicameral.
2. Before independence, while under all the previous Government of India Acts, the Government of India was unitary, the Government of India Act, 1935 prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

50. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the Constitution of India?
1. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November, 1949.
2. The provisions relating to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November, 1949.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

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