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Tuesday, January 31, 2012

ONGC Solved Geology Practice Test


ONGC Solved Geology Practice Test
Geology MCQ Paper
Q.1: Ankerites are:
(a) Ca Mg carbonate
(b) Ca Fe carbonate
(c) Ca Mg Fe carbonate
(d) Ca Mg Fe Al carbonate
ANSWER. (c)

Q.2: Micrite is formed of grains:
(a) Less than two microns in size.
(b) Less than four microns in size.
(c) Less than ten microns in size.
   (d) Less than fifty microns in size.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.3: Guano are:
(a) Calcareous deposits.
(b) Ferrugenous deposits.
(c) Phospatic deposits.
(d) Siliceous deposits.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.4: When a lacustrine environment is affected by marine conditions, then the environment
is known as:
(a)    Esturine
(b) Paludal
(c) Paralic
(d) Limnic
ANSWER. (c)

   Q.5: Which is the most Important Indicator of ancient climate:
(a) Radioactivity of the deposits.
(b) Type of cementing material.
(c) Order of superposition of beds.
(d) Type and distribution of fossils.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.6: “Shingle” is characteristic of ....... environment:
(a) Littoral.
(b) Terrestrial.
(c) Neritic.
(d) Abyssal.
ANSWER. (a)

Q.7: Where the modern turbidity current deposits (turbidlties) are generally found:
(a) At the base of continental shelf.
(b) On and at the base of continental shelf.
(c) On the continental rise.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.8: Sediments which are formed by slow precipitation of minerals from sea water in place
by crystallisation, are called as:
(a) Terrigenous marine sediments.
(b) Pelagic marine sediments.
(c) Authigenic marine sediments.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.9: Fracturing of quartz grains is commonly developed in:
(a) A high energy conditional transport system.
(b) A low energy conditional transport system.
(c) A linear flow conditional transport system.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (a)

Q.10: Mark the correct statement regarding sedimentary facies:
(a) These are lateral variations in sediments type in a sedimentary formation.
(b) They are the result of variations in current velocity.
(c)They are variable in the basin of deposition.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.11: Diagenesis is a:
(a) Pre-depositional process.
(b) Post-depositional process.
(c) Inter-depositional process.
(d) Simultaneous-depositional process.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.12: Among quartzose sandstones the initial stage of diagenesis is characterised by:
(a) Rounding of quartz.
(b) Rounding and solution pitting of quartz.
(c) Colour changes.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.13: According to Dopples, which of the following stage of diagenesis is responsible for the
colour of the rock:
(a) Automorphic.
(b) Synomorphic.
(c) Locomorphic.
(d) Redoxomorphic.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.14: Metamorphism is a:
(a) Solid - State reconstitution
(b) Solid -liquid state reconstitution
(c) Solid -liquid - gas - stare reconstitution.
(d) Liquid - state reconstitution.
Answer. (a)

Q.15: Isotropic fabrics of metamorphic rocks form:
(a) Under nonhydrostatic stress condition.
(b) Under hydrostatic stress condition.
(c) Due to ductile flow
(d) Due to chemical reactions.
Answer. (b)

Q.16: Mark the correct statement:
(a) P-T values often are above the peak metamorphic conditions.
(b) P-T values often are below the peak metamorphic condition.
(c) P-T values often are equal the peak metamorphic condition.
(d) There is no relation between P-T values and peak metamorphic conditions.
Answer. (b)

Q.17: Granulite facies rocks represent:
(a) Shallow crystal materials
(b) Deep crystal materials.
(c) Oceanic materials
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)

Q18: Green schists are:
(a) Low pressure and low temperature rock.
(b) High pressure and high temperature rock.
(c) High pressure and low temperature rock.
(d) Low pressure and high temperature rock.
Answer. (c)

Q.19: Staurolite forms by the reaction of:
(a) Chlorite and sillimanite
(b) Muscovite and chloritoid
(c) Chlorite and mucosvite
(d) Chloritoid and sillimanite.
Answer. (c)

Q.20: A metamorphic rock, containing very high  content (more than 80%), would
indicate that the rock was originally a:
(a) Granite
(b) Syenite
(c) Sandstone
(d) Shale
Answer. (c)

Q.21: ln the lowest grades metamorphism, which variety of garnet is present:
(a) Spessartite
(b) Pyrope
(c) Andradite
(d) Grossularite.
 Answer. (a)

Q.22: The products of thermal and high grade regional metamorphism, generally containing:
(a) Two - coordinated aluminum
(b) Four - coordinated aluminum.
(c) Six - coordinated aluminum
(d) Eight- coordinated aluminum
Answer. (b)

Q.23: Mineralogical rearrangement of high temperature assemblage to a low temperature
one takes place then the metamorphism is known as:
(a) Puro metamorphism
(b) Contact metamorphism
(c) Retrograde metamorphism
(d) Plutonic metamorphism
Answer. (c)

Q.24: Metamorphism involves process of:
(a) Liquid - state recrystallisation.
(b) Solid -liquid - state recrystallisation
(c) Solid-state recrystallisation
(d) Solid - gas - state recrystallisation.
Answer. (c)

Q.25: The predominant agent in contact metamorphism is:
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Chemical fluid
(d) None of these.
Answer. (a)


Geology Practice IOCL Questions


Geology Practice IOCL Questions
 Model Test Paper PETROLOGY

   Q.1: Chalk is a variety of:
(a) Biosparite.
(b) Sparite.
(c) Biomicrite.
(d) Stromatolite.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.2: Guano deposits are formed by accumulation of:
(a) The excreta of fish-eating birds.
(b) The aragonite shells.
(c) The calcareous shells.
(d) The bones of sea- birds.
ANSWER. (a)

Q.3: Lagoonal deposits are deposited under:
(a) Euxinic environment
(b) Esturiane environment .
(c) Littoral environment.
(d) Lacustrine environment.
ANSWER. (a)

Q.4: The authigenic apatite in the sandstone-type uranium mineralisation, points towards:
(a) Diagnosis in littoral-marine environment.
(b) Diagenesis in euxenic conditions of marine affinity.
(c) Location of source rock.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.5: The upper cretaceous Mahadek formation at Domiasiat, Meghalaya is well known for:
(a) Calcareous type thorium mineralisation
(b) Calcareous type uranium mineralisation.
(c) Sandstone type uranium mineralization.
(d) Agarillaceous gold deposits.
ANSWER. (c)
  
Q.6: Deposition of sediments in presence of large volume of water is found in:
(a)  Arkosic facies.
(b) Mollasse facies.
(c). Euninic facies.
(d) Flysch facies.
ANSWER. (c)

   Q.7: When depositional environments migrate laterally, sediments of one environment
come to lie on top of sediments of an adjacent environment, is:
(a) EuIer’s Law. .
(b) WaIther’s Law.
(c) Jame’s Law.
(d) Franklin’s Law.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.8: Terragenous marine sediments are:
(a) Result of marine activity.
(b) Land derived sediments.
(c) Precipitated sediments.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
ANSWER. (b)

Q.9: Any thick succession of sandstone calcarenite of conglomerate alternatic with shale of
sandstone and deposited mainly by turbidity currents in a deep water environment within a
tectonically active orogenic belt is commonly named as:
(a) Crevice.
(b) Flysch.
(c) Xenolith.
(d) Tecto- sedimentary rock.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.10: The poor sorting of a sediment is generally the result of:
(a) Rapid deposition and more reworking.
(b) Rapid deposition and little reworking.
(c) Slow deposition and little reworking.
(d) Slow deposition and more reworking.
ANSWER. (b)

   Q.11: The presence of a limestone indicate about the nature of the area in which it was
formed that:
(a) There were not much land-derived sand, silt and clay.
(b) The carbonate would have been over whelmed and could not form a bed of pure calcium carbonate.
 (c) The limestone beds would have formed far from land.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.12: Diagenesis process involves the alternation of:
(a) Structure only.
(b) Structure and texture only
(c) Structure, texture and mineralogy.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.13: The diagenesis of carbonates involves changes in:
(a) Particle size.
(b) Porosity.
(c) Authigenic mineral growth.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.14: Cross-beds are very important sedimentary structures because they provide
information about:
(a) The environment of deposition.
(b) The palaeocurrents.
(c) Identification of top and bottom of a bed.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.15: Heavy minerals are those minerals whose density is above:
(a) 2.2.
(b) 2.6.
(C) 2.9.
(d) 3.5.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.16: Study of heavy minerals is more important in the case of:
(a) Igneous plutonic rocks.
(b) Igneous volcanic rocks.
(c) Sedimentary rocks.
(d) Metamorphic rocks.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.17: Sediments deposited in deltas, may be kept under the category of:
(a) Terrestrial.
(b) Marine.
(C) Terrestrial-marine.
(d) None of these. 
ANSWER. (c)

Q.18: What kind of igneous rock is a likely source for arkoses sandstone?
(a) Granite.
(b) Syenite.
(c) Gabbros.
(d) Diorite.
ANSWER. (a)

Q.19: Sandstone composed of 25% or more of the sand grains of' feldspar is called as:
(a) Quartz-sandstone.
(b) Arkoses-sandstone.
(c) Lithe- sandstone.
(d)Greywacke.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.20: Radiolarian and Diatomaceous Oozes are:
(a) Phosphate deposits.
(b) Siliceous deposits.
(c) Calcareous deposits.
(d) Carbonaceous deposits.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.21: Tipam sandstone is mainly:
(a) Lithiwacke.
(b) Quartzwacke.
(c) Feldspathicwacke.
(d) Lithicarenite with some quanzwacke.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.22: Quartz is the most abundant constituent of sand and sandstone, because:
(a) It is a fairly abundant primary mineral.
(b) It is devoid of any cleavage.
(c) It is highly resistant to decomposition.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.23: Sandstones consisting of 60% quartz and 30-34% feldspars are called:
(a) Arkoses.
(b) Greywacke.
(c) Grit.
(d) Free stone
ANSWER. (a)

Q.24: What does a conglomerate indicate about the energy conditions
 in the environment of deposition?
(a) Low energy.
(b) Medium energy.
(c) High energy.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (c)

   Q.25: Which term is used for flexible sandstone:
(a) lgnimbrite.
(b) Itacolumite.
   (c) Ferricrete.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (b)

Free online PETROLOGY Quiz


Free online PETROLOGY Quiz
Geology Solved Test
Q.1: The sedimentary rock without stratification is:
(a) Shale.
(b) Limestone.
(C) Sandstone.
(d) Tillie.
ANSWER: (d)

Q.2: Load cast structures in sedimentary rocks can be regarded as:
(a) Exogenesis.
(b) lndogenetic.
(c) Biogenic.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)

   Q.3: Antidotes are formed:
(a) At the lowest velocities of the current flow.
(b) At the highest velocities of the current flow.
(c) At the moderate velocities of the current flow.
(d) When there is no flow.
ANSWER: (b)

Q.4: Aeolian and alluvial ripple marks can be distinguished by the following characteristics
   (a) At the crest of aeolian ripples, coarse particles are found, while at the crest of alluvial ripples fine
Particles are formed
(b) At the crest of aeolian ripples, fine particles are found, while at the crest of alluvial ripples,
 Coarse particles are found
 (c) In both the case crests are made up of fine particles; while the troughs are made up of different
Particle sizes.
(d) In both the case crests are made up of coarse particles, while the troughs are made up of
different particle sizes.
ANSWER: (a)

Q.5: Climbing ripples are characteristics of:
(a) Point bar.
(b) Braided bar.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (c)

Q.6: The thickest cross beddings are most often found in:
(a) Alluvial deposits.
(b) Aeolian deposits.
(c) Glacial deposits.
(d) Lake deposits.
ANSWER: (b)







Q.7: Ripple marks are best observed in:
(a)  Limestones.
(b) Shams.
(c) Conglomerated.
(d) Sandstones.
ANSWER: (d)

Q.8: Current beddings are formed due to:
(a) Frequent changes in velocity of the flow of the stream.
(b) Frequent change in direction 'of the flow of the stream.
(c) Frequent changes in velocity and direction of the flow of the stream.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (c)

Q.9: Graded bedding is characterised by:
(a) Coarse grains at bottom and fine grains at top
(b) Coarse grain at top and fine grains at bottom.
(c) Same grain size distribution.
(d) Mixture of coarse and fine grains.
ANSWER: (a)

Q.10: The larger the scale of the cross beds indicate:
(a) The higher the velocity of the current.
(b) The lower the velocity of the current.
(c) The distance of the source rock.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)

Q.11: Variation of palaeocurrent direction is minimum ln the deposits formed by:
(a) Glacial processes.
(b) Fluvial processes.
(c) Aeolian processes.
(d) Beach processes.
ANSWER. (d)


Q.12: A thickness map which shoes drilled intervals, irrespective of the amount of dip, is
called:
(a) ISOpach map.
(b) ISOchore map.
(c) lSObar map.
(d) lSOlith map.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.13: Grain size distribution of particles can be graphically represented by:
(a) Histogram.
(b) Cumulative curve.
(c) Triangular diagram.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (d)

  
   Q.14: The liquid, used to separate heavy minerals from light minerals is:
(a) Chloroform.
(b) Broomcorn.
(C) Kerosene.
(d) Ethylene.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.15: Presence of augite minerals in a sedimentary rock will indicate:
(a) High grade metamorphic source.
(b) Low grade metamorphic source.
(c) Sandstone rock source.
(d) Igneous volcanic source.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.16: Differentiation between conglomerate and breccias is generally, made based on the
(a) Mineral composition.
(b) Sediments size.
(c) Sediments shape.
(d) Cementing materials.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.17: Quartz sandstone is said "mature" when it is having:
(a) Well-rounded, poor-sorted quartz grains.
(b) Poor-rounded, poor-sorted quartz grains.
(c) Well-rounded, well-sorted quartz grains.
(d) Poor-rounded, well-sorted quartz grains.
ANSWER. (c)

Q.18: ll a body of seawater is totally evaporated, what sequence of rock types result
(a) Calcite, Gypsum, Anhydrite and Halite.
(b) Gypsum, Calcite, Halite and Anhydrite.
(c) Halite, Gypsum, Anhydrite and Calcite.
(d) Gypsum, "Anhydrite, Halite and Calcite.
ANSWER. (a)

  Q.19: Chalk is composed of carbonate mud and microfossils. It lt contains clay minerals as
well it, is called :
(a) Chert.
(b) Clayey chalk.
(c) Ooze.
(d) Marl.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.20: The high detritus, quartz percentage in a sand stone indicates:
(a) A recycled origin from a deeply weathered quartz-rich terrain.
(b) Highly resistive nature of the quartz grain.
(c) Long distance of transportation.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (a)

Q.21: Sandstone of glacial origin contains a good percentage of feldspar grains, because:
(a) It is abundant glacial regions.
(b) Its hardness increases in cold regions.
(c) The prevailing intense cold climate prevents feldspar’s decay
(d) None of these.
 ANSWER. (c)

Q.22: Greywacke is dark in colour andirlch in clay rock fragments and contains less of
Quartz sand grains, which are:
(a) Rounded, fine and well sorted.
(b) Angular, fine and well sorted.
(c) Rounded, coarse and unsorted
(d) Angular, coarse and unsorted.
ANSWER. (d)

Q.23: Who is the given credit for the principle of uniformitarianism (the present is the key to
past):
(a) Alfred Wegener.
(b) Sir James Hutton.
(c) F. Jenkins.
(d) Arthur Holmes.
ANSWER. (b)

Q.24: Aragonite is unstable under normal temperature pressure conditions, which ions help
   preserve aragonite much longer than normal:
(a) Calcite ions
(b) Sulphate ions
(c) Ferric ions.
(d) None of these
ANSWER. (b)

Q.25: ln phosphatic minerals, the main phosphate is usually called:
(a) Collophanite.
(b) Ankerite
(c) Dolomite.
(d) Sparite.
ANSWER. (a)

Monday, January 30, 2012

Geology, Earth Science Sample Paper


                                      
Geology, Earth Science Sample Paper
Petrology  Practice Test

Q.1: The Formation of pillow lava indicates:
(a) Free eruption.
(b) Continental eruption.
(c) Sub-marine eruption.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)

Q.2: Alteration of volcanic rocks come about more or less automatically, the
alteration is called:
(a) Propylitic alteration.
(b) Hydrothermal alteration.
(c) Deuteric alteration.
(d) None of the above.
Answer. (c)

Q.3: Match the columns:
                    I                                                        II
1. Panidiomorphic.               i. Crystals subhedral. _
2. Hypidiomorphic.              ii. Crystals are anhedral.
3. Allotriomorphic.              iii. Crystals are euhedral.
4. Glassy                                iv. No crystallisation at all.

(a) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv.
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(c) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
(d) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4- iv.
Answer. (d)

Q.4: Trondhjemite is a:
(a) Quartz diorite.
(b) Quartz dumite.
(c) Plagioclase granite.
(d) Felspar diorite.
Answer. (a)
Q.5: Most of the mountain ranges of past geological times, show cores of:
(a) Granitic types.
(b) Granodioritic types.
(c) Dioritic types.
(d) Basaltic types.
Answer. (b)

Q.6: Rock containing enstatite and hypersthene along with plagioclases is called:
(a) Anorthosite.
(b) Monzonite. 
(c) Norite
(d) Lamprophyre.
Answer. (c)

Q.7: Match the following:
 I                                           ll
1. Granite.                   i Dacite.
2. Granodiorite.         ii. Andesite.
3. Syenite.                  iii. Rhyolite.
4. Diorite                    iv. Trachyte.
(a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(c) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.
(d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4- ii.
Answer. (a)

Q.8: Syenite with alkali feldspar and plagioclase in almost equal amount is called:
(a) Norite.
(b) Kimberlite.
(c) Peridotite.
(d) Monozonite.
Answer. (d)

Q.9: What coarse-grained (plutonic) rock consists of abundant calcic plagioclase
pyroxene and ollvine:
(a) Syenit.
(b) Lamprophyre
(c) Peridotite.
(d) Gabbro.
Answer. (d)

Q.10: Kimberlite is a variety of:
(a) Dumile.
b) Pyroxerlite.
c) Peridotite
d) Syenite.
Answer. (c)

Q. 11: Ultrabasic basalt rich in olivine is called
(a) Oceanite.
(b) Klmberlite. 
(c) Norite
(d) ljolite.
Answer. (a)

Q.12: Ultrabasic and eclogite xenoliths from mantle sources are found in:
(a) Panna Kimberlites.
(b) Wajrakaru Kimberlites.
(c) Kishangarh Nepheline Syenites.
(d) Dongargarh Granites.
Answer. (b)

Q.13: Mark the correct order of stages of cooling and crystallisation of a magma:
(a) Orthomagmatic, Pneumatolylic, Hydrothermal and pegmatitic
(b) Pegmatitic, Pneumatolytic, Orthomagmatic and Hydrothermal.
(c) Orthomagmatic, Pegmatitic, Pneumatolytic and Hydrothermal.
(d) Hydrothermal, Pegmatitic, Orthomagmatic and Pneumatolytic.
Answer. (c)

Q.14: When the active solutions are directly of magmatic origin, all changes in mineral
composition or in texture produced by them are termed:
(a) Eutectic.
(b) Deuteric.
(c) Metasomatic.
(d) Hydatogenetic.
Answer. (b)

Q.15: The Three most abundant types of sedimentary rocks in order
of decrease abundance are:
(a)     Sandstone, Limestone and mud stone.
(b)   Sandstone, mudstone and Limestone.
(c) Limestone, sandstone and mudstone.
(d) Mudstone, sandstone and limestone.
ANSWER: (d)

Q.16: Absence of bedding in a sedimentary deposit may be due to:
(a) The rate of accumulation m have been too rapid for sorting.
(b) The materials supplied may have been too uniform in character.
(c) Slumping of the materials after their deposition may have destroyed
on original bedded structures.
(d)   All the above.
ANSWER: (d)

Q.17: A sedimentary layer whose 'thickness Is less than one centimeter, is known as:
(a) Stratum.
(b) Lamina.
(c) Verve.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)

Q.18: Plane beds formed under high current Velocity conditions have:
(a) No surface irregularities large in amplitude.
(b) Surface irregularities large in amplitude.
 (c) Surface irregularities small in amplitude.
(d) Very narrow irregularities.
ANSWER: (a)

Q.19 Antidotes are formed due to:
 (a) Downstream motion of the sediments against the current flow.
(b) Upstream motion of the sediments against the current flow.
(c) Very high velocity of the current flow.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)

Q.20: In the climbing ripple lamination the angle of climb is commonly between:
(a) 1 and 5 degree from the horizontal.
(b) 5 and 10 degrees from the horizontal.
(C) 5 and 20 degrees from the horizontal.
(d) 10 and 30 degrees from the horizontal.
ANSWER: (c)

Q.21: The formation of ripples on sand and silt surfaces alternates with stacker water
deposition of finer mud, a structure is produced known as:
(a) Tabular bedding.
(b) Ventricular bedding.
(c) False bedding.
(d) Falser bedding.
ANSWER: (d)

Q.22: Ripple marks are developed under:
(a) Deep water conditions.
(b) Shallow water conditions.
(c) Both deep and shallow water conditions.
(d) Very deep water conditions.
ANSWER: (b)

Q.23: Asymmetrical current ripple marks are formed due to:
(a) Wave action.
(b) Current action.
(C) Both wave and current actions.
(d) Combined action of wave and current action.
ANSWER: (b)

Q.24: A current bedding in which horizontal beds are made up of fine materials occuring
alternately with coarse deposits, is called:
(a) Tabular bedding.
(b) Lenticular bedding.
(c) False bedding. 
(d) Torrential bedding.
ANSWER: (d)

Q.25: Rain prints can occur in:
(a) Igneous rocks only.
(b) Sedimentary rocks only.
(c) Metamorphic rocks only.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (b)

PETROLOGY Geology ONGC MCQ



PETROLOGY Geology ONGC MCQ
Geology Model Test Paper
Q.1: Batholiths are generally associated with:
(a) Island arcs.
(b) Folded structures.
(C) Orogenic belts.
(d). Earthquake zones.
Answer. (c)

Q.2: The process of conversion of glassy material to crystallised material is known as:
(a) Crystallisation.
(b) Devitrification.
(c) Eutectic process.
(d) Assimilation.
Answer. (b)

Q.3: A rock made up of euhedral crystals, the texture is described as:
(a) Allotriomorphic.
(b)Hypidiomorphic.
(c) Panidomorphic.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)

Q.4: Ophitic texture is commonly shown by:
(a) Trachyte.
(b) Lamprophyres.
(C) Andesite.
(d) Dolerite.
Answer. (d)

Q.5: The Deccan trap basalt, as it is porphyric in nature, the phenocrysts are:
a) Plagioclase.
b) Plagioclase and olivine.
c) Plagioclase, olivine and clinopyroxene.
d) Olivine and clinopyroxene.
Answer. (c)
Q.6: Calc-alkaline plutonic rocks are chiefly composed of:
(a) Felspars and pyroxenes.
(b) Felspars and micas.
(c) Quartz and pyroxenes.
(d) Felspar and Quartz.
Answer. (d)

Q.7: When the groundmass is glassy in a porphyritic texture, it is called:
(a) Poikilitic texture.
(b) Orthophyric texture.
(c) Vitrophyric texture.
(d) Felsophyric texture.
Answer. (c)

Q.8: Jungel metavolcanic suite (central India) predominantly known for:
(a) Acidic basalt.
(b) Alkali basalt.
(c) Platean basalt.
(d) Tholiitic basalt
Answer. (b)

Q.9: Which one is a pure natural glass of granitic composition:
(a) Rhyolite.
(b) Pitchstone.
(c) Obsidian.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)

Q.10: A common decomposition in basaltic rocks involve:
(a) Oxidation of Mg.
(b) Oxidation of Fe.
(c) Hydration of Fe.
(d) Hydration of K.
Answer. (b)

Q.11: Aplite is a:
a) Fine-grained, unequigranular rock.
b) Fine-grained, equigranular, paniodiomorphic form of a plutonic rocks.
c) Fine-grained, equigranular, allotriomorphic form of a plutonic rock.
   d) Volcanic rock.
Answer. (c)

Q.12: Plutonic lgneous rocks are formed under:
(a) Deep seated and moderate temp-pressure conditions.
(b) Near the earth’s surface and high temperature pressure conditions.
(c) Deep seated high temperature pressure and fast cooling conditions.
(d) Deep seated, high temperature pressure and slow cooling conditions.
Answer. (d)
Q.13: Anorthosite dominantly composed of:
(a) Oligoclase felspar.
(b) Anorthoclase felspar.
(C) Labrodorite felspar.
(d) Orthoclase felspar.
Answer. (c)

Q.14: Lamprophyres generally occur as:
(a) Batholiths.
(b) Dykes and sills.
(c) Plutons.
(d) Laccolith.
Answer. (b)

Q.15: Match the following:
                    I                                                                         II
1. A coarse-grained, light-coloured rock.              i. Rhyolite                                            
2. A coarse-grained, dark-coloured rock.             ii. Gabbro.                              
3. A fine-grained, light-coloured rock.                  iii. Granite                                      
4. A fine-granied, dark-coloured rock.                  iv. Basalt.                                  
(a) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i.
(b) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv.
(c) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
(d) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 3-i.
Answer. (b)

Q.16: Name the coarse-grained (plutonic) rock consisting primarilly of sodic plagioclase and
hornblende:
(a) Syenite.
(b) Diorite.
(c) Gabbro.
(d) Granite.
Answer. (b)

Q.17: Ultrabasic basalt rich ln augite is called:
a) Oceanite.
b) Diabase.
c) Kimberlite.
d) Ankaramite.
Answer. (d)

Q.18: A rock composed of about 50% nephaline and rest consisting of other matic minerals
is generally known as:
(a) Dunite.
(b) Kimberlite
(c) Iiolite.
(d) Pulaskite.
Answer. (c)
Q.19: The first minerals to crystallise from a completely or almost anhydrous melt at high
temperature are called:
(a) Hydatogenetic minerals.
(b) Pyrogenetic minerals.
(c) Pegmatitic minerals.
(d) Orthomagmatic minerals.
Answer. (b)

Q.20 Present of water in the melt causes:
(a) Lowering of the solidus and liquidus temperatures.
(b) Rising of the solidus and liquidus temperatures.
(c) No change of the solidus and liquidus temperature.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (a)

Q.21: What is the evidence of devitrification:
(a) Corona structure.
(b) Orbicular structure.
(c) Perlitic.
(d) Percussion figure.
Answer. (c)

Q.22: Sagenitic texture is shown by:
(a) Rutile.
(b) llmemite.
(C) Ijolite.
(d) Microcline.
Answer. (a)

Q.23: Match the following:
                I                                                 ll
1. Leucocratic.                             i. Dark coloured rock.
2. Mesocractic.                           ii. Light coloured rock.
3. Melanocratic.                         iii. Extremely dark coloured rock.
4. Hypermolanocratic.              iv. Intermediate in colour.
a) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4- iii.
b) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i.
c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
Answer. (a)

Q.24: The larger crystals in the core of zoned pegmatites are the result of the .... of the magma:
(a) Higher viscosity.
(b) Lower viscosity.
(c) More ion concentration.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)

Q.25: The grain-size variation is more or less continuous from smallest to largest, the
texture is called:
(a) Seriate.   
(b) Porphyritic.
(C) Poikilitic.
(d) Miarolitic.
Answer. (a)

Saturday, January 28, 2012

General English Railway Recruitment


General English Railway Recruitment
English Solved Questions
Select the word which is Antonym of the italicized word
 1. He is extremely intelligent but proud.
(a) Simple
(b) Ignorant
(c) Weak
(d) Dull
Answer. (d)

2. We all heard her but it was a superficial talk. 
(a) Profound
(b) Difficult
(c) Secretive
(d) Mystical
Answer. (a)


3. The Gupta rulers patronised all cultural activities and thus the Gupta era came to be
known as ‘the Golden Era’ of Indian history.
(a) Criticised
(b) Rejected
(c) Opposed
(d) Spurned
Answer. (c)

4. His move was a calculated one.
(a) Idiotic
(b) Simple
(c) Thoughtless
(d) Artless
Answer. (c)

5. Sherlock Holmes is a fictitious character.
(a) Real
(b) Imaginative
(c) Fancy
(d) Foreign
Answer. (a)

6. Politicians today are robbing the nation of its  wealth.
(a) Strengthening
(b) Protecting
(c) Helping
(d) Enriching
(d) Advancing
Answer. (d)

7. It is a Herculean task for me.
(a) Indecent
(b) Puny
(c) Ponderous
(d) Big
Answer. (b)

8. Genuine drugs are available in most of the medical shops.
(a) Harmful
(b) Wrong
(c) Dubious
(d) Spurious
Answer. (d)

9. The new government has abolished the Gold Control Act.
(a) Approved
(b) Passed
(c) Restored
(d) Removed
Answer. (b)

10. He Looked elated on hearing the news.
(a) Exasperated
(b) Depressed
(c) Desperate
(d) Anxious
Answer. (b)

11. His timidity proved to be costly.
(a) Boldness
(b) Arrogance
(c) Self-assertion
(d) Self-confidence
Answer. (a)

12. He is a man of mellow temper.
(a) Excitable
(b) Hot
(c) Irrational
(d) Fickle
Answer. (b)

13. He was in a dejected mood.
(a) Irritable
(b) Romantic
(c) Jubilant
(d) Rejected
Answer. (c)

14. He could not confirm that he had made any such statement.
(a) Rejected
(b) Avoid
(c) Deny
(d) Refuse
Answer. (c)

15. This piece of land is the most fertile and yields a good harvest each year.
(a) Starting
(b) Sterile
(c) Worthless
(d) Futile
Answer. (b)

16. The General Manger is quite tactful and handless the worker’s union very effectively.
(a) Relaxed
(b) Strict
(c) Naive
(d) Disciplined
(e) Loose
Answer. (c)

17. Dhanik Lal is a deceitful man and cannot be relied upon.
(a) Honest
(b) Sincere
(c) Gentle
(d) Simple
Answer. (b)

18. My parents were confident of my success in the examination.
(a) Worried
(b) Pessimistic
(c) Diffident
(d) Depressed
Answer. (c)

19. Nothing has been organised properly and confusion seems inevitable.
(a) Uncertain
(b) Ineligible
(c) In evident
(d) Inefficient
Answer. (c)

20. Everyone could see that it was a prejudiced decision.
(a) Unbiased
(b) Candid
(c) Helpful
(d) Logical
Answer. (a)

21. The geologists declared that the fossil was authentic.
(a) Old  
(b) Fake
(c) New
(d) Beautiful
Answer. (b)

22. Never adopt ea callous attitude towards your duties.
(a) Cooperative
(b) Cautious
(c) Considerate
(d) Courteous
Answer. (c)

23. Hearing the news, he jumped up in ecstasy.
(a) Misery
(b) Beatitude
(c) Exaltation
(d) Rapture
Answer. (a)

24. Only an inquisitive person can gain proper knowledge.
(a) Careless
(b) Indolent
(c) Dull
(d) Uninterested
Answer. (d)

25. India is a land of abundant resources.
(a) Enough
(b) Poor
(c) Deficient
(d) Limited
Answer. (d)

English Bank PO, Teachers Entrance Exams


English Bank PO, Teachers Entrance Exams
UPSC English Sample Paper
Select the word which is Antonym of the italicized word

1. She looked gorgeous in her new dress.
(a) Ugly
(b) Beautiful
(c) Ordinary
(d) Shabby
Answer. (d)

2. In ancient days, a fragile glass jar was considered to be more valuable than a human slave.
(a) Broad
(b) Tall
(c) Strong
(d) Heavy
Answer. (c)

3. Last month tomatoes were quite cheap.
(a) Inexpensive
(b) Costly
(c) Insufficient
(d) Less
Answer. (b)

4. I accept your plan.
(a) Deny
(b) Dismiss
(c) Reject
(d) Decline
Answer. (c)

5. It was really a sinister move on his part.
(a)  Malevolent
(b) Sinful
(c) Auspicious
(d) Right
Answer. (c)

6. That man is known for his elegance.
(a) Awkwardness
(b) Indelicacy
(c) Clumsiness
(d) Savagery
Answer. (c)

7. The man was liberated from the charge.
(a) Emancipated
(b) Enclosed
(c) Concealed
(d) Imprisoned
Answer. (d)


8.  For the first time I saw him speaking so rudely to Ranjeet.
(a) Softly
(b) Gently
(c) Politely
(d) Slowly
Answer. (c)

9. He was asked to accelerate the pace of work.
(a) Check
(b) Control
(c) Slacken
(d) Supervise
Answer. (c)

10. Gandhiji always advocated the use of indigenous goods.
(a) Cheap
(b) Native
(c) Silly
(d) Foreign
Answer. (d)

11. In all places, and at all times, there is a profusion of talents.
(a) Plenty
(b) Generosity
(c) Aversion
(d) Scarcity
Answer. (d)


12. The actor is well known both for his humility and courage.
(a) Gentleness
(b) Honesty
(c) Determination
(d) Pride
Answer. (d)

13. Ashish has an innate sense of humor.
(a)Natural
(b) Inborn
(c) Unusual
(d) Acquired
Answer. (d)

14. Rajesh’s rustic behaviour astonished the teacher.
(a) Impolite
(b) Genuine
(c) Sophisticated
(d) Awkward
Answer. (c)

15. Always be impartial in your dealings.
(a) Discourteous
(b) Impudent
(c) Disrespectful
(d) Unfair
Answer. (d)

16. Repression in Chine has deepened during the past few months.
(a) Regeneration
(b) Liberation
(c) Agitation
(d) Expression
Answer. (b)

17.  We should not belittle the value of small things.
(a) Expand
(b) Inflate
(c) Praise
(d) Extol
Answer. (d)

18. Rajesh is a shrewd person.
(a) Boisterous
(b) Aggressive
(c) Foolish
(d) Intelligent
Answer. (c)

19. He denied the accusation.
(a) Justified
(b) Spoke
(c) Publicized
(d) Affirmed
Answer. (d)


20. I think this would be a quixotic project for me.
(a) Wasteful
(b) Profitable
(c) Fantastic
(d) Practical
Answer. (d)

21. He found it hard to withstand the stress of circumstances.
(a) Endure 
(b) Resist
(c) Tolerate
(d) Yield
Answer. (d)


22.  He frequently visits his old uncle in his native village.
(a) Temporarily
(b) Rarely
(c) Irregularly
(d) Secretly
Answer. (b)

23. Such comparisons in poetry are now obsolete.  
(a) Permanent
(b) Ancient
(c) Renovated
(d) Recent
Answer. (d)

24. In the interest of one’s own reputation one should avoid ostentation while entertaining friends.
(a) Innocence
(b) Purity
(c) Simplicity
(d) Miserliness
Answer. (c)

25. Ours is undoubtedly a morbid society.
(a) Healthy
(b) Virtuous
(c) Liberal
(d) Progressive
Answer. (a)




IAS,IES English Solved Questions



IAS,IES English Solved Questions
English Sample Paper                         
Directions: Choose the one which is closest to the opposite in meaning
of the italicized word.

1. I thought about her a lot during the following months.
(a) Receding
(b) Preceding
(c) Proceeding
(d) Succeeding
Answer. (b)

2. She is indeed human.
(a) Universal
(b) Devilish
(c) Terrestrial
(d) Divine
Answer. (d)

3. Geetanjali is loved by all for her meekness.
(a) Harshness
(b) Pride
(c) Anger
(d) Passion
Answer. (b)

4. There has always been a feeling of rancor between the two families.
(a) Rivalry
(b) Competition
(c) Friendliness
(d) Suspicion
Answer. (c)

5. People know him for his vanity
(a) Humanity
(b) Honesty
(c) Courtesy
(d) Modesty
Answer. (d)


6. It was a mystery as to where the young girl had acquired such a cynical attitude 
(a) Mature
(b) Naive
(c) Eccentric
(d) Crazy
Answer. (b)

7. He stood gazing at the serene expanse of the sea.
(a) Scenic 
(b) Clear
(c) Tranquil
(d) Ruffled
Answer. (d)

8. He is always hungry for wealth.
(a) Ravenous
(b) Famished
(c) Satiated
(d) Greedy
Answer. (d)

9. This shop keeps only genuine articles
(a) Imported
(b) Spurious
(c) Antique   
(d) Duplicate
Answer. (b)

10. The drug will have pernicious effect on your health.
(a) Beneficial  
(b) Prolonged
(c) Ruinous
(d) Pornographic
Answer. (a)

11. Phoolan Devi had to surrender under the most pressing circumstances.
(a) Release
(b) Claim
(c) Plunder
(d) Attack
Answer. (b)

12. His boorish ways amused everyone.
(a) Refined
(b) Funny
(c) Eccentric
(d) Friendly
Answer. (a)

13. He has suspended his secretary on a flimsy ground.  
(a) Vigorous
(b) Strong
(c) Sound
(d) Salutary
Answer. (d)

14. The gross domestic product (GDP) is an essential component of economy
(a) Rough  
(b) Course
(c) Refined  
(d) Estimated
Answer. (d)

15. The man at the gate had a forbidding appearance
(a) Lenient
(b) Handsome
(c) Tranquil
(d) Mild
Answer. (b)

16. Nourishing food is a necessity both for a pregnant mother and a baby.
(a) Unhygienic
(b) Poor
(c) Undercooked
(d) Heavy
Answer. (a)

17. Gandhi did not welcome the idea of being a mute spectator to the atrocious
behaviour of the whites towards the non-whites in Africa.
(a) Gracious
(b) Noble
(c) Civilized
(d) Pleasing
Answer. (b)

18. The smile was indeed captivating.
(a) Hateful
(b) Disgusting
(c) Repulsive
(d) Obscene
Answer. (c)

19. A crowd gathered quickly when the police came.
(a) Collected
(b) Dispersed
(c) Spread
(d) Disappeared
Answer. (b)

20. Hydra is biologically believed to be immortal.
(a) Undying
(b) Perishable
(c) Ancient
(d) Eternal
Answer. (b)

21. A feeling of brotherhood should be propagated amongst the masses.
(a) Disseminated
(b) Suppressed
(c) Dissipated
(d) Crushed
(e) Countered
Answer. (b)

22. The problem of dowry in our country has assumed gargantuan proportions.
(a) Negligible
(b) Bearable
(c) Minute
(d) Minimal
Answer. (c)

23. We must realize the futility of wars.
(a) Urgency
(b) Usefulness
(c) Value 
(d) Importance
Answer. (b)

24. His punctuality and regularity propitiates everyone with whom he Deals.
(a) Depresses
(b) Excites
(c) Enrages
(d) Appeases
Answer. (c)
  
25. lt is  obligatory for a common citizen to follow the rules.
(a) Optional
(b) Superfluous
(c) Necessary
(d) Advisable
Answer. (a)