Objective test in Electronics Engineering For Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (ETE), Electronics and Communication

Objective test in Electronics Engineering
For Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (ETE), Electronics and Communication
1.Consider two samples of silicon semiconductor identical in all respects except that one is uniformly doped with10¹⁵ cm10^-3 donor impurity atoms (Sample A) and the other is non-uniformly doped with donors from one side such that N_d(x) = N₀ e ^-ax (sample B). Let a = 1 hm^-1 and N₀= 10¹⁷ cm^-3 . Consider the following sample B.
1. Sample A will not have any current at equilibrium but current will flow out of sample B
2. Both samples will have built-in electric, field
3. Sample A will have zero built-in electric field whereas sample B will have a constant built-in electric field
4. No current will flow at equilibrium from either sample A or sample B
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
2. Consider the following statements:
The temperature dependence of resistivity of a sample of N-type silicon is based upon carrier concentration and carrier mobility variations with temperature
because
1. the resistivity of silicon increases with temperature.
2. the mobility decreases with temperature
3. the carrier concentration increases with temperature
4. the resistivity of silicon decreases with temperature
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1,2and3
(b) 2,3and
(c)1 and2
(d) 3and 4
3. The unit of mobility is
(a)m²V^-1s^-1
(b) mV^-1s^-1
(c)Vsm^-1
(d) Vms^-1
4. The Haynes-Shockley experiment enables one to determine the
(a) diffusion coefficient of majority carriers
(b) effective mass of the minority carriers
(c) mobility of the minority carriers
(d) lifetime of the majority carriers
5. The Hall constant in p-Si bar is given by 5 x 10³ cm³⁵/Coloumb The hole concentration in the bar is given by
(a) 1.00 x 10¹⁵/ cm³
(b) 1.25 x 10¹⁵/ cm³
(c) 1.50 x 10¹⁵/ cm³
(d) 1.60 x 10¹⁵/ cm³ -
6. In an extrinsic semiconductor, the Hall coefficient RH
(a) increases with increase of temperature
(b) decreases with increase of temperature
(c) is independent of the change of temperature
(d) changes with the change of magnetic field
7. Consider a semiconductor bar having square cross-section. Assume that holes drift in the positive x-direction and a magnetic field is applied perpendicular to the direction in which holes drift. The sample will show
(a) a negative resistance in positive y-direction
(b) a positive voltage in positive y-direction
(c) a negative voltage in positive y-direction
(d) a magnetic field in positive y-direction
8. The change in barrier potential of a silicon p-n junction with temperature is
(a)0.025 Volts per degree C
(b) 0.250 Volts per degree C
(c)0.030 Volts per degree C
(d) 0.014 Volts per degree C
9.Moor’s law relates to
(a) speed of operation of bipolar devices
(b) speed of operation of MOS devices
(ç) power rating of MOS devices
(d) level of integration of MOS devices
10. The colour T. V. picture signal is a
(a) single-channel, one-dimensional signal
(b) single-channel, three-dimensional signal
(c) three-channel, one-dimensional signal
(d)three-channel, three-dimensional signal
11 Consider the following statements:
1. Fourier transform is special case of Laplace transform.
2. Region of convergence need not be specified for Fourier transform.
3. Laplace transform is not unique unless the region of convergence is specified.
4. Laplace transform is a special case of Fourier transform.
Which of these statements are correct?
Codes:
(a)2 and 4
(b) 4 and 1
(c)4, 3 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. The units of the spectrum obtained by Fourier transforming the covariance function of a stationary stochastic process is?
(a)power per Hertz
(b) energy per Hertz
(c)power per second
(d) energy per second
13. The maximum power that a 12 V d.c. source with an internal resistance of 20 Ohms can supply to a resistive load is ?
(a)12W
(b) 18W
(c)36W
(d) 48W
14. Consider the following statements associated with the Superposition theorem:
1. It is applicable to d.c. circuits only.
2. It can be used to determine the current in a branch or voltage across a branch.
3. It is applicable to networks consisting of more than one source.
4. It is applicable to networks consisting of linear and bilateral elements.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c)3, 4 and 1
(d) 4, 1 and 2
15. Which one of the following statements is NOT a property of R-L driving point
impedance?
(a) The first critical frequency at the origin is a zero
(b) The last critical frequency is a pole
(c) The impedance at S =infinity is always less than the impedance at S = zero
(d) The slope of the impedance curve is positive at all points
16. In a network containing resistances and reactances the roots of the characteristic
equation give for the circuit
(a)the forced response
(b) the total response
(c)the natural response
(d) the damped response
17. Consider the following:
Energy storage capability of basic passive elements is due to the fact that
1. resistance dissipates energy
2. capacitance stores energy
3. inductance dissipates energy
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 alone
(d) 1 and 2
18. ?L/C has the dimension of
(a)time
(b) capacitance
(c)inductance
(d) resistance
19. A network N’ is dual of network N if
(a) both them have same mesh equations
(5) both of them have the same node equations
(c) mesh equations of one are the node equations of the other
(d) KCL and KVL equations are the same
20. The input impedance of a short circuited quarter wave long transmission line is
(a) purely reactive
(b) purely resistive
(c) dependent on the characteristic impedance of the line
(d) none of the above
21. For a wave propagating in an air filled rectangular waveguide
(a) guided wavelength is never less than the free space wavelength
(b) wave impedance is never less than the free space impedance
(c) TEM mode is possible if the dimensions of the waveguide are properly chosen
(d) Propagation constant is always a real quantity
22. Consider the following statements with reference to Brewster angle:
1. For oblique incidence at a boundary, there is no reflected wave when the incident wave is vertically polarized.
2. Brewster angle can occur only at the boundary of a perfect conductor.
3. For a horizontally polarized wave, there is no Brewster angle.
4. When the incident wave is not fully vertically polarized, there will be a reflected component which is horizontally polarized.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a)1,2and3
(b) 2,3and4
(c)3, 4 and 1
(d) 4, 1 and 2
23. When a particular mode is excited in a wave-guide, there appears an extra electric component in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
(a) transverse-electric
(b) transverse-magnetic
(c) longitudinal
(d) transverse-electromagnetic
24. The most suitable primary standard for frequency is
(a)Rubidium vapour standard
(b) Quartz standard
(c)Hydrogen maser standard
(d) Caesium beam standard
25. Horizontally mounted moving iron instruments employ
(a)Eddy current damping
(b) Air friction damping
(c)Fluid friction damping
(d) Electromagnetic damping
26. There are four types of controlled sources, namely VC VS, VC CS, CC CS, CC VS.
It is required to select a proper controlled source configuration for interfacing
the output of a high-impedance microphone to a low impedance loudspeaker.
The proper source will be
(a) VC VS (Voltage Controlled Voltage source)
(b) VC CS (Voltage Controlled Current Source)
(c) CC CS (Current Controlled Voltage Source)
(d) CC VS (Current Controlled Voltage Source)
27. Some of the functional building blocks of a measurement system are:
Primary Sensing Element (PSE)
Variable Conservation Element (VCE),or Transducer
Data Transmission Element (DTE)
Variable Manipulation Element (VME)
Data Presentation Element (DPE)
The correct sequntial connection of the functional building blocks for an
electronic pressure gauge will be
(a)PSE, VME, VCE, DPE, DTE
(b) PSE, VCE, VME, DTE, DPE
(c)DTE, DPE, VCE, PSE, VME
(d) PSE. VCE, DTE, DPE, VME
28. According to Guassian statistical analysis, if the confidence level is 0.80, then the values lying outside the confidence interval are
(a)1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c)1 in 20
(d) 8 in 10
29. The true rams. voltmeter employs two thermocouples in order to
(a) prevent drift
(b) increase the accuracy
(c) increase the sensitivity
(d) cancel out the nonlinear effects of first thermocouple
30. A certain oscilloscope with 4cm by 4cm screen has its own sweep output fed to its input. If the x and y sensitivities are same, the oscilloscope will display a
(a) saw-tooth wave
(b) triangle wave
(c)diagonal line
(d) horizontal line
Answers :

1	d
2	b
3	a
4	c
5	b
6	a
7	b
8	a
9	d
10	b
11	d
12	b
13	b
14	b
15	c
16	c
17	d
18	d
19	c
20	d
21	a
22	c
23	b
24	d
25	b
26	a
27	b
28	a
29	d
30	c

electronics Solved MCQ For Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (ETE)

electronics Solved MCQ
For Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (ETE)
1. An ideal amplifier has
a) Noise figure of 0 db
b) Noise figure of more than 0 db
c) Noise factor of unity
d) Noise figure of less than 1 db
Ans : (c)
2. Fidelity represents
S1: Reproduction of signal
S2: Reproduction of phase relation
a) S1 and S2 are true
b) S1 and S2 are false
c) S1 false and S2 true
d) S1 true and S2 false
Ans : (d)
3. The decibel is a measure of
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Power level
Ans : (d)
4. Power gain in decibels is equal to voltage gain in decibels only when
a) Input impedance is equal to output impedance
b) Output impedance is zero
c) Never
d) Input impedance is zero
Ans : (a)
5. If the current gain of the amplifier is X, its voltage gain is Y, then its power gain will be
a) X/Y
b) X*Y
c) X+Y
d) X-Y
Ans : (b)
6. In an amplifier, the coupling capacitors are employed for
a) Limiting the bandwidth
b) Matching the impedance
c) Preventing of Dc mixing with input or output
d) Controlling the output
Ans : (c)
7. The amplifier which has no drift is called as
a) Differential amplifier
b) DC amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (d)
8. The amplifier gain varies with frequency. This happens mainly due to
a) Miller effect
b) Presence of external and internal capacitance
c) Logarithmic increase in its output
d) Inter stage transformer Ans : (b)
9. The outstanding characteristics of a D.C. amplifier is its
a) Ability to amplify Dc and low frequency signals
b) Temperature stability
c) Utmost economy
d) Avoidance of frequency sensitive components
Ans : (a)
10. Isolation amplifier actually operates on the principle of
a) Filtering
b) Attenuation
c) Clipping
d) Amplification
Ans : (b)
11. Isolation amplifiers are also called as
a) DC amplifier
b) Output amplifier
c) Inverting amplifier
d) Iso-amps
Ans : (d)
12. The improper response time of the amplifier in the biomedical recorders
a) Affects the gain of the amplifier
b) Delays the signals
c) Changes the shape of the waveform of the signal
d) Attenuates the signals
Ans : (c)
13. To reduce common mode interference during recording of bio signals one can use__________
a) Buffer amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Single ended amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (b)
14. Resistively generated inference arises through incorrect __________________
a) Grounding
b) Current density at the electrodes
c) Supply voltage
d) Input impedance
Ans : (a)
15. CMRR is more in_______________
a) Single ended amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Inverting operational amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (b)
16. For biomedical applications the mostly used amplifier is
a) Single ended amplifier
b) Differential amplifier
c) Inverting operational amplifier
d) Chopper amplifier
Ans : (b)
17. ___________ amplifier is used to drive the recorder.
a) Power amplifier
b) Pre amplifier
c) Operational amplifier
d) Differential amplifier
Ans : (a)
18. When a number of components are fabricated on same IC chip it is necessary to provide isolation between two different components for input interconnection is called __________
a) Input amplification
b) Input differentiation
c) Common mode rejection
d) Input isolation
Ans : (d)
19. A chopper amplifier
a) Converts AC signal from low frequency to high frequency
b) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency
c) Converts AC signal from low frequency to DC high frequency
d) Converts DC signal from low frequency to high frequency
Ans : (b)
20. Power amplifier is provided with
S1: Cross over distortion compensation
S2: Offset control
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
21. Pre amplifier isolation in ECG circuit is to
a) Increase input impedance
b) Decrease input impedance
c) Increase output impedance
d) Decrease output impedance
Ans : (a)
22. Raising input impedance of pre amplifier reduces
a) Input current
b) Output current
c) Stray current
d) Grid current
Ans : (c)
23. Common mode rejection ratio is defined as ratio of
a) Common mode gain to differential mode gain
b) Differential mode gain to common mode gain
c) Common mode gain at input to differential mode gain at input
d) Common mode gain at output to differential mode gain at output
Ans : (b)
24. An electrometer amplifier has high input impedance of
a) 1010?
b) 105?
c) 1020?
d) 1015?
Ans : (d)
25. When the input of differential amplifier V1 = 0, then the differential amplifier is said to be operated in
a) Common mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode
Ans : (c)
26. When either one of the inputs to the differential amplifier is equal to zero then it is said to be operated in
a) Single ended mode
b) Differential mode
c) Non inverting mode
d) Inverting mode
Ans : (a)

27. The negative feed back in an amplifier
a) Reduces voltage gain
b) Increases the voltage gain
c) Increases the gain band width product
d) Reduces the input impedances
Ans : (a)
28. Feedback in an amplifier always helps in
a) Increasing its input impedance
b) Increasing its gain
c) Controlling its output
d) Stabilizes its gain
Ans : (c)
29. Using mechanical chopper we cannot achieve high chopping rates due to their
a) Input impedance
b) Output impedance
c) Response time
d) Inertia
Ans : (d)
30. The CMRR of a typical IC OPAMP is
a) 70 dB
b) 80 dB
c) 85 dB
d) 75 dB
Ans : (b)
31. A -------------- is usually a display device used to produce a paper record of analog wave form.
a) Graphic pen recorder
b) Electron microscope
c) X-Y recorder
d) Oscilloscope
Ans : (a)
32. The _________ of a recording system is the magnitude of input voltage required to produce a standard deflection in a recorded trace.
a) Accuracy
b) Linearity
c) Sensitivity
d) Resolution
Ans : (c)
33. A recorder is said to have good frequency response when the sensitivity of the system is _________ for all frequencies present in the signal.
a) Unity
b) Zero
c) Infinity
d) Constant
Ans : (d)
34. In phase response of a recorder noise level ___________ with the band width of a system
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Reaches unity
d) Reaches infinity
Ans : (a)
35. Function of microscope is
S1: To magnify object, under observation
S2: To resolve the object
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (c)
36. In electron microscope the projection of the motion on a plane normal to magnetic
induction (B) will be a circle of radius (r) =
a) mVsin?+eB
b) mVsin?/eB
c) mVsin?-eB
d) mVsin?*eB
Ans : (b)
37. Match the following
1. Electron microscope – (A) Electron gun
2. Oscilloscope – (B) Condensing magnetic lens
3. Galvanometric recorder – (C) Recording head
4. Magnetic recorder – (D) Drive motor
a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
Ans : (c)
38. In PMMC writing system, the magnitude of pen deflection is proportional to
S1: Current flowing through the coil
S2: Voltage in the coil
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (a)
39. Duration of rotation of pen in the PMMC system depends upon ___________
a) Phase angle
b) Frequency
c) Magnitude
d) Direction
Ans : (d)
40. The shorter wave length of the electron permits the detailed examination of tiny objects due to reduction of ___________ effects
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Refraction
d) Polarization
Ans : (b)
41. Which of the following recorder gives slow response
a) X-Y recorder
b) Oscillographic
c) Galvanometric
d) Magnetic
: (c)
42. The use of storage oscilloscope
S1: Viewing rapidly changing non repetitive wave forms
S2: Recording average values
a) S1 is true & S2 is false
b) S2 is true & S1 is false
c) Both S1 & S2 are true
d) Both S1 & S2 are false
Ans : (b)
43. In X-Y recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure
Ans : (a)
44. In strip chart recorders, the self balancing potentiometers plot emf as a function of
a) Another emf
b) Frequency
c) Time
d) Pressure
Ans : (c)
45. The slewing speed of X-Y recorder is
a) 1.6 m/s
b) 1.3 m/s
c) 1.4 m/s
d) 1.5 m/s
Ans : (d)

46. The resolution limit of electron microscope is
a) 2 A.V
b) 1 A.V
c) 1.5 A.V
d) 1.2 A.V
Ans : (b)
47. _____________ is also known as halftone storage or mersh storage.
a) Variable persistence storage
b) Bistable storage
c) Flat storage
d) CRT
Ans : (a)
48. Storage oscilloscope operates on the principle of
a) Primary emission
b) Deflection
c) Secondary emission
d) Diffusion
Ans : (c)
49. Stress and strain curves are plotted using
a) Magnetic tape recording
b) X-Y recording
c) Galvanometric
d) PMMC writing systems
Ans : (b)

Electronics Engineering practice test

Electronics Engineering practice test
Free Online Electronic Engineering Practice and Preparation Test
1. In synchronous counter,speed is
a)high
b)very low
c)0
d)limited
Ans:a
2.In shift register,CLR input is
a)to make all o/ps are one
b) to make all o/ps are zero
c) to make all o/ps are high
d)none of these
Ans:b
3. In shift register, input is transformed to output during
a)zero edge triggering
b)negative edge triggering
c)positive edge triggering
d) none of these
Ans:c
4.In counter,each filp flop will toggle when its clock receives a
a)zero edge clock
b)negative edge clock
c)positive edge clock
d) none of these
Ans:b
5.Which is D/A Converter
a)Binary weighted type
b)comparator type
c)Ramp type
d)none of these
Ans:a
6. Which is A/D Converter
a)Binary weighted type
b) Ramp type
c) either (a) or (b)
d)none of these
Ans:b
7.In A/D Converter, analog input is given to
a)ground of OPAMP
b)virtual ground of OPAMP
c)inverting of OPAMP
d)non inverting of OPAMP
Ans:d
8. In A/D Converter, reference input is given to
a)ground of OPAMP
b)virtual ground of OPAMP
c)inverting of OPAMP
d)non inverting of OPAMP
Ans:c
9.Dual slop converter is
a)DC converter
b)A.C Converter
c)D/A Converter
d)none of these
Ans:d
10.R-2R Converter is
a)DC converter
b)A.C Converter
c)D/A Converter
d)none of these
Ans:c
11.A/D Conversion used in
a)D.Cl machines
b) A.Cl machines
c)computers
d)none of these
Ans:c
12. If one of the inputs is high ,then output is also low in
a) NOR
b) AND
c) EXOR
d) NAND
Ans:a
13. If both inputs are low ,then output is high in
a) EXOR NOR
b) AND
c) NOR
d) NAND
Ans: c
14..NAND is a contraction of
a) AND-NOT
b) NOT-AND
c) AND-AND
d) None of these
Ans:b
15.NOT gate performs
a)no operation
b)addition
c)subtraction
d)inversion
Ans:d
16.A+A=?
a)1
b)B
c)A
d)complement of A
Ans:c

Basic Electronics and Comm Questions Objective

Basic Electronics and Comm Questions Objective
Electronics Communications Interview Questions and Answers
1.Communication is a process of
a) transfer of information
b) transfer of energy
c) transfer of channel
d) none of these
Ans:a
2. An example of communication service
a) printer
b) television
c) both(a)&(b)
d) none of these
Ans:b
3. Channel is
a) medium
b) signal
c) carrier
d) none of these
Ans:a
4. Analog signal varies with
a) sampling time
b) time continuously
c) sampling frequency
d) none of these
Ans:b
5. Discrete signal is represented by
a) coding
b) modulation
c) demodulation
d) sequence of samples
Ans:d
6. Carrier signal has
a) constant magnitude
b) constant frequency
c) variable frequency
d) variable time
Ans:a
7.Modulating signal has
a) low frequency
b) low modulation
c) high frequency
d) none of these
Ans:a
8. Modulation index is
a) Vm/Vc
b) Vc/Vm
c) Vm/Ic
d) None of these
Ans:a
9. fc +fm is
a) upper band frequency
b) lower band frequency
c) mid band frequency
d) none of these
Ans:a
10. fc –fm is
a) upper band frequency
b) lower band frequency
c) mid band frequency
d) none of these
Ans:b
11.In amplitude modulation, frequency is
a) constant
b) zero
c) variable
d) one
Ans:a
12. In amplitude modulation, amplitude is
a) constant
b) zero
c) variable
d) none of these
Ans:c
13.In frequency modulation, frequency is
a. constant
b. zero
c. variable
d.one
Ans:c
14. In frequency modulation, amplitude is
a.constant
b.zero
c.one
d.variable
Ans:a
15. frequency modulation has
a) one carrier
b) one carrier with two side band frequencies
c) one carrier with infinite frequencies
d) none of these
Ans:c
16. Amplitude modulation has
a) one carrier
b) one carrier with two side band frequencies
c) one carrier with infinite frequencies
d) none of these
Ans:b
17.FM signal is less affected by
a) loss
b) temperature
c) frequency
d) noise
Ans:d
18. FSK is
a) frequency shift keying
b) frequency shine keying
c) frequency shine keyboard
d) none of these
Ans:a
19. ASK is
a) Amplitude shift keying
b) Amplitude shift keyboard
c) Amplitude shine keying
d) none of these
e) Ans:a
20. HPA is
a) high power audio
b) high port audio
c) high power amplifier
d) none of these
Ans:c
21. Word ‘SCANNING’ is used in in
a) telecost
b) telephone
c) radio
d) TV
Ans:d
22. The frequency range of 1GHZ to 30GHZ are referred as
a) sound waves
b) micro waves
c) mini waves
d) none of these
Ans:b
23 . IF is
a) interference frequency
b) interconnection frequency
c) intermediate frequency
d) none of these
Ans:c
24. Low pass filter attenuates
a) high frequencies
b) low frequencies
c) medium frequencies
d) none of these
Ans:a
25 . high pass filter attenuates
a) high frequencies
b) low frequencies
c) medium frequencies
d) none of these
Ans:b
26. Low pass filter allows
a) high frequencies
b) medium frequencies
c) zero frequency
d) low frequencies
Ans:d
27. High pass filter allows
a) high frequencies
b) medium frequencies
c) zero frequency
d) low frequencies
Ans:a
28. Primary component of uplink section of satellite is
a) transformer
b) transistor
c) earth station transmitter
d) power station transmitter
Ans:c
29. Micro wave communication is used in
a) TNEB
b) telephone networks
c) industries
d) none of these
Ans:b
30. Non electric signal is converted into electrical signal by
a) transmitter
b) receiver
c) line
d) none of these
Ans:a
31. In order to reduce interference, the signal should be
a) amplified
b) multiplied
c) demodulated
d) modulated
Ans:d
32. An example for an analog signal
a) Sine wave
b) impulse signal
c) sample signal
d) None of these
Ans:a
33. Messages travel from transmitter to receiver with help of
a) Transmitter
b) Receiver
c) channel
d) antennas
Ans:c
34. Bandwidth of FM signal is ---than AM signal
a) lesser
b) either lesser or larger
c) larger
d) none of these
Ans:c
35. In AM modulation ,when the modulation index increases, transmitted power is
a) constant
b) increased
c) decreased
d) none of these
Ans:b
36. In FM modulation ,when the modulation index increases, transmitted power is
a) constant
b) increased
c) decreased
d) none of these
Ans:a
37. Sound signalsin TV are
a) amplitude modulated
b) dc modulated
c) frequency modulated
d) a and c
Ans:c
38. Video signals in TV are
a) amplitude modulated
b) de modulated
c) frequency modulated
d) none of these
Ans:a
39. In optical communication, carrier is
a) electromagnetic waves in optical frequency
b) electromagnetic waves in maximum frequency
c) electromagnetic waves in minimum frequency
d) none of these
Ans:a
40. Optical detector is
a) diode
b) PIN photo diode
c) transistor
d) none of these
Ans:b
41.Optical fibre has---diameter
a.small
b.large
c.zero
d.none of these
Ans:a
42. Optical fibre is fabricated by
a) glass
b) copper
c) aluminium
d) none of these
Ans:a
43.An earth station receiver consists of
a.RF to IF down converter
b. IFto RF converter
c.either (a)&(b)
d.none of these
Ans:a
44. An earth station transmitter consists of
a.RF to IF down converter
b. IFto RF converter
c. either (a)&(b)
d.none of these
Ans:b
45.VHF is
a.very low frequency
b.very high frequency
c.very hot frequency
d.none of these
Ans:b
46. TRF is nothing but
a.TV radio frequency
b.Tuned radio frequency
c.Tube radio frequency
d.none of these
Ans:b
47.which one of the following is the type of ‘superheterodyning’
a.Radio transmitter
b.TV
c.radio receiver
d.radar
Ans:c
48.AFC is nothing but
a.Audio frequency control
b.Automatic frequency control
c.Amplitude frequency control
d.none of these
Ans:b
49.The maximum power in AM,when modulation index is
a.0
b.0.5
c.0.7
d.1
Ans:d
50.Primary colours are
a.red,blue.green
b.green,white.blue
c.blue,red.yellow
d.none of these
Ans:a

Indian law practice Objective questions including questions on UP law

Indian law practice Objective questions including questions on UP law
Free online practice objective Questions for exams: Law
Objective Question Model Papers for judicial and legal Exams
1. ‘A’ intentionally fired a shot from his pistol at ‘B’ but it hit ‘C’ and ‘C’ died. The offence committed by ‘A’ is—
(A) Attempt to murder
(B)Culpable homicide
(C)Murder under Section 300
(D)Murder under Section 301
Ans:-D
2. ‘A’ makes a false entry in his electronic record for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in trial court. ‘A’ has—
(A) Fabricated false evidence
(B) Not fabricated false evidence
(C) Committed forgery
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
3. A workman throws snow from a roof giving proper warning. A passer by is killed. The workman is—
(A) Guilty of murder
(B) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Guilty of causing death by negligence
(D) Not guilty since death was accidental
Ans:-D
4. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘sedition’ ?
(A) Section 122
(B) Section 123
(C) Section 124
(D) Section 124-A
Ans:-D
5. ‘A’ puts his hand in the pocket of ‘B’ for stealing money, but the pocket was empty.
‘A’ is guilty of—
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
(C) Mischief
(D) No offence
Ans:-B
6. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with vicarious
Liability?
(A) Section 120-A
(B) Section 121
(C) Section 154,
(D) Section 159
Ans:-C
7. Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
Reason (R) : Where the aid of the society cannot be obtained, individual may do everything necessary to protect himself.
Codes:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A) .
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-C
8. The ingredients of Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code are—
1. Knowledge of the probability of the commission of the offence
2. Common intention
3. Unlawful objects stated in Section 141 of the I.P.C.
4. Active participation in commission of crime.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes:
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans:-D
9. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.
Reason (R) : Homicide is always unlawful.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-C
10. Which one of the following is not a correct ingredient of the offence of theft?
(A) Dishonest intention of take property
(B) Property must be movable
(C) Property must be taken without the consent of the person in whose possession it is
(D) Property must be taken without consent of the owner of the property
Ans:-D
11. Which one is not an essential ingredient of a crime?
(A) Motive
(B) Evil intent
(C) Human being
(D) Act
Ans:-A
12. Common intention means—
(A) Similar intention
(B) Same intention
(C) Sharing of intention by all persons
(D) Common plans
Ans:-C
13. Sexual intercourse by a man with a woman even with her consent is a rape, if she is
below the age of—
(A) 17 years
(B) 16 years
(C) 19 years
(D) 18 years
Ans:-B
14. Which one of the following is not a punishment under Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Fine
(B) Transportation
(C) Forfeiture of property
(D) Death
Ans:-B
15. In which of the following case the right of private defence of body does not extend to causing of death?
(A) Assault with the intention of committing kidnapping
(B) Assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust
(C) Wrongful restraint ‘
(D) Assault with the intention of committing abduction
Ans:-C
16. ‘Unlawful Assembly’ has been defined in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under—
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 146
(C) Section 149
(D) Section 159
Ans:-A
17. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Abetment of an abetment is not an offence
(B) Abetment of illegal omission may be an offence
(C) To constitute the offence of abetment the effect requisite to constitute the offence need not be caused
(D) The person abetted need not be capable by law of committing an offence
Ans:-A
18. Attempt to commit robbery is punishable under—
(A) Section 392 LP.C.
(B)Section 393 I.P.C.
(C)Section 390 I.P.C.
(D)Section 394 I.P.C.
Ans:-B
19. Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of kidnapping under the Indian Penal Code?
(A) Minor Child
(B) Intention of the accused
(C) Without the consent of lawful guardian
(D) Out of the keeping of the lawful guardian
Ans:-B
20. Making preparation to commit dacoity is punishable in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under—
(A) Section 393
(B) Section 395
(C) Section 398
(D) Section 399
Ans:-D
21. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Section)
(a) Section 463
(b) Section 445
(c) Section 441
(d) Section 503
List-II
(Offence)
1. Criminal Trespass
2. Forgery
3. Criminal intimidation
4. House-breaking
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans:-A
22. The case of Gian Kaur V/s State of Punjab is related to—
(A) Murder
(B) Culpable homicide
(C) Abetment of suicide
(D) Attempt to commit suicide
Ans:-D
23. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court declared Section 303 of the I.P. Code as unconstitutional?
(A) Sher Singh V/s State of Punjab
(B) Mithu V/s State of Punjab
(C) Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab
(D) Triveni Ben V/s State of Gujarat
Ans:-B
24. ‘A’ removes B’s book from his house without his consent with the intention to return it to him if he as a friend rewards him for the return. ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to theft
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) Attempt to criminal breach of trust
Ans:-A
25. ‘A’ incites ‘B’ to beat ‘C’. Subsequently ‘A’ reaches the place where ‘B’ is beating ‘C’. ‘A’ is liable under—
(A) Section 34
(B) Section 109
(C) Section 114
(D) Section 115
Ans:-C
26. ‘A’ cheats by pretending to be ‘B’, a person who is deceased ‘A’ is liable to be punished under—
(A) Section 420 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 419 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 418 of LP.C.
(D) Section 417 of I.P.C.
Ans:-B
27. In exercise of the right of private defence of property death cannot be caused in the case of—
(A) Robbery
(B) House breaking by night
(C) Mischief by fire in a dwelling house
(D) Theft
Ans:-D
28. Assertion (A): ‘A’ a boy aged nine years intentionally kills ‘B’. ‘A’ is liable to be convicted.
Reason (R) : A child up to the age of 12 years is immune from criminal liability.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true d (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanations of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-C
29. In a dark night ‘A’ and ‘B’ were fighting. B’s wife keeping her child on her shoulder reached there for separating them. In the meantime A’s fist fell on the back of the child and the child died ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) Hurt
(B) Grievous hurt
(C) Culpable homicide
(D) Murder
Ans:-A
30. In which of the following offences ‘Mens rea’ is not an essential ingredient?
(A) Murder
(B) Theft
(C) Robbery
(D) Bigamy
Ans:-D
31. ‘A’ beat his wife. She fell down and became unconscious. Believing her to be dead and to save himself from being arrested for murder ‘A’ hanged her in the fan with rope. Postmortem report disclosed her death from hanging. ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) Murder
(B) Culpable homicide
(C) Hurt
(D) Grievous hurt
Ans:-B
32. The word ‘good faith’ is defined in the Indian Penal Code in—
(A) Section 44
(B) Section 51
(C) Section 52
(D) Section 52-A
Ans:-C
33. ‘A’ is cutting the wood with an axe at a place where children are playing ? The axe files off and kills a nearby child. ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) No offence
(B) Murder
(C) Culpable homicide
(D) Causing death by negligence
Ans:-D
34. Insanity is—
(A) Lack of free will
(B) Incapacity produced due to drunkenness
(C) Incapable of knowing the nature of act committed
(D) Diseased mind
Ans:-D
35. ‘A’ finds a purse with money, not knowing to whom it belongs; he afterwards discovers that it belongs to ‘B’ and appropriates to his own use. ‘A’ is guilty of—
(A) Theft
(B) Criminal misappropriation
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) Cheating
Ans:-B
36. Which one of the following Sections of the police Act, 1861 has not been repealed?
(A) Section 06
(B) Section 44
(C) Section 41
(D) Section 11
Ans:-B
37. What is the date of enforcement of the Police (U.P. Amendment) Act, 2001?
(A) 15 August, 2001
(B) 26 January, 2001
(C) 10 August, 2001
(D) 14 March, 2001
Ans:-B
38. Which paragraphs of the U.P. Police Regulations deal with the absconding offences?
(A) 196 to 214
(B) 215 to 222
(C) l90 to195
(D) 223 to276
Ans:-B
39. Who is the Head of Criminal administration in a District?
(A) Superintendent of Police
(B) District Magistrate
(C) Additional District Magistrate (Administration)
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
40. A police constable compels a person to remain in police station on false case of theft and allowing him to go after receiving money from him. He is liable for—
(A) Forgery
(B) Cheating
(C) Extortion
(D) Wrongful confinement
Ans:-B
41. Under which Section of Police Act additional police force is provided in a
District on certain conditions—
(A) Section 13
(B) Section 16
(C) Section 14
(D) Section 15
Ans:-D
42. Under which Section of Police Act the State Government is empowered to make Rules and Regulations governing the service conditions of members of Police Force—
(A) Section2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 4
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
43. Which Section of Police Act deals with the duties of police officers?
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 22
(C) Section 23
(D) Section 24
Ans:-C
44. Which one of the following Sections of Police Act contains provisions relating to
General Diary?
(A) Section 43
(B) Section 44
(C) Section 45
(D) Section 46
Ans:-C
45. Regulation of public assemblies and processions and licensing of the same is provided in Police Act, 1861 under—
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 28
(C) Section 30
(D) Section 32
Ans:-C
46. Under the U.P. Police Regulations a village chowkidar is responsible to the—
(A) District Superintendent of Police
(B) Superintendent of Police (Rural)
(C) Village Pradhan
(D) District Magistrate
Ans:-D
47. The power of the District Superintendent of Police to regulate the volume of music on the roads on the occasion of festivals is provided under—
(A) Clause (4) of Section 15-A of the Police Act.
(B) Clause (2) of Section 27 of the Police Act.
(C) Clause (4) of Section 30 of the Police Act.
(D) Clause (3) of Section 16 of the Police Act.
Ans:-C
48. Under Section 25 of the Police Act, 1861, the charge of unclaimed property is to be take by—
(A) Deputy Superintendent of Police
(B)Superintendent of Police
(C)District-Magistrate
(D)Every Police Officer
Ans:-D
49. The statutory powers of the Inspector General of Police under Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 is subject to—
(A) Article 32 of the Constitution of India
(B) Article 226 of the Constitution of India
(C) Article 311 of the Constitution of India
(D) Article 309 of the Constitution of India
Ans:-C
50. Special Police officer under the Police Act, 1861 can be appointed by—
(A) A Magistrate suo motu
(B) The Inspector General of Police
(C) The Senior Superintendent of Police
(D) A Magistrate on an application by an Inspector of Police
Ans:-D

Tough Electronics engineering questions

Tough Electronics engineering questions
Electronics and communication engineering core questions
1. If the height of transmitting and receiving antennas in a LOS system are 49 m and 9 m respectively then the distance up to which communication may be possible is about
(a) 40km
(b) 110 km
(c)400 km
(d) 1100 km
2. The skip distance is
(a) same for each layer
(b) independent of frequency
(c) independent of the state of ionisation
(d) independent of transmitted power
3. Match List I (Instrument) with List II (Property/use) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
Listi List II
A. PMIVIC 1. Square law type scale
B. Moving iran 2. Very good high frequency response
C. Thermocouple 3. Linear scale over the entire range
D. Electrostatic type 4. Voltmeter
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
4. A coil would behave as
(a) an inductor at high frequencies
(b) a capacitor at very low frequencies
(c) a capacitor at very high frequencies
(d) a resistor at high frequencies
5. An ammeter of range 0—25 A has a guaranteed accuracy of 1% of full-scale reading. The current measured by the ammeter is 5A. The limiting error in the reading is
(a) 2%
(b) 2.5%
(c)4%
(d)5%
6. An inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4pF capacitor. The self-capacitance of the inductor would be
(a) 8.05 pF
(b) 10.05 pF
(c) 16.l0 pF
(d) 20.l0 pF
7. “The current internationally recognised unit of time and frequency is based on the cesium clock, which gives an accuracy better than 1 micro s per day.” This statement is related to
(a) Working standards
(b) International standards
(c) Primary standards
(d) Secondary standards
8. The bandwidth of a CR0 is from 0 to 20 MHz. The fastest rise time which a square wave can have, in order that it is accurately reproduced by the CR0 is
(a)0.175micro
(b) 17.5ns
(c) 35ns
(d) 52.5ns
9. A dc voltage of 1 V is applied to the X-plates of a CR0 and an ac voltage 2 sin 100 t is applied to the Y-plates. The resulting display on the CR0 screen will be a
(a) vertical straight line
(b) horizontal straight line
(c) sine wave
(d) slant line
10. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
(a) odd harmonics
(b) even harmonics
(c) fundamental component
(d) dc component
11. Wagner’s earth in ac bridge circuits is used to eliminate the effect of
(a) stray electrostatic fields
(b) stray electromagnetic fields
(c) inter-component capacitances
(d) parasitic capacitance to earth
12. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range
of
(a) 2000 to 500°C
(b) 0°C to 500°C
(c) 500°C to 1200°C
(d) 1200°C to 2500°C
13. Magnetic flux can be measured by
(a) capacitive pick-up
(b) inductive pick-up
(c) resistive pick-up
(d) Half-effect pick-up
14. A semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of
-2500 microV/ C. This transducer is indeed a
(a) thermistor
(b) forward-biased pn junction diode
(c) reverse-biased pn junction diode
(d) FET
15. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to
(a) produce a constant voltage
(b) provide temperature compensation
(c) provide a constant current
(d) measure average pH value
16. The most light sensitive transducer for conversion of light into electrical power
is the
(a) Photodiode
(b) solar cell
(c) Photoconductive cell
(d) photovoltaic cell
17. In an amplitude modulated system, if the total power is 600 W and the power in
carrier is 400 W, then the modulation index is
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.9
(d) 1
18. Time division multiplexing requires
(a) constant data transmission
(b) transmission of data samples
(c) transmission of data at random
(d) transmission of data of only one measurand
19. The dual of a parallel R-C circuit is a
(a series R-C circuit
(b) series R-L circuit
(c) parallel R-C circuit
(d) parallel R-L circuit
20. The function s+2+ 3/s can be realized
(a) both as a driving, point impedance and as a driving point admittance
(b) as an impedance, but not as an admittance
(c) as an admittance, but not as an impedance
(d) neither as an impedance nor as an admittance
Answer:
1 a
2 d
3 d
4 c
5 d
6 b
7 c
8 b
9 a
10 c
11 b
12 d
13 d
14 b
15 a
16 d
17 d
18 a
19 b
20 a

Online Free indian law MCQ

Online Free indian law MCQ
law degrees MCQ Quiz Indian laws
Objective Solved Questions Indian law
law objective test for law officers ,Manger (law) jobs exam
Law Exams: Model Questions ,Objective Questions free online
1. A person shall be elgib1e to be appointed as an Additional Public Prosecutor only if he has been in practice as an advocate for not less than—
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Seven years.
(D) Three
Ans:-C
2. The Central Government or the State Government may appoint for the purposes of any case or class of cases, a person who has been in practice as advocate for not less than—
(A) Five
(B) Seven
(C) Eight
(D) Ten,
Years as a Special Public Prosecutor.
Ans:-D
3. The Court of a Magistrate of first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding—
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) Four years
Ans:-A
4. The Court of a Magistrate of the second class may pass a sentence of fine not exceeding—
(A) One thousand
(B) Three thousand
(C) Five thousand
(D) Ten thousand rupees.
Ans:-A
5. If a person in lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody he escaped may, immediately pursue and arrest him—
(A) Within local limits of the police station concerned
(B) Within local limits of the district
(C) Within local limits of the state
(D) In any place in India
Ans:-D
6. In proceeding under Section 107 of Code of Criminal Procedure an Executive Magistrate may require to execute a bond for keeping peace for such period, not exceeding—
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Six months
as the Magistrate thinks fit.
Ans:-A
7. In reference of information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) It may be given orally to an officer incharge of a police station
(B) It is reduced to writing by or under the direction of the officer incharge of the police station
(C) Information reduced to writing is to be signed by the person giving it
(D) Copy of information cannot be given, free of cost, to the informant
Ans:-D
8. Any person, who has accepted a tender of pardon made under Section 306 or Section 307, has, either by willfully concealing anything essential or by giving false evidence, not complied with the condition on which the tender was made. Who will certify this fact?
(A) District Magistrate
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) Public Prosecutor
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
Ans:-C
9. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure is dead, then—
(A) Offence cannot be compounded
(B) Offence can be compounded by any of the eye-witnesses
(C) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence without the consent of the Court
(D) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the Court
Ans:-D
10. At any time before the Judgement is pronounced, prosecution of any person may be withdrawn with the consent of the Court by
(A) On whose instance first information report was recorded
(B) Investigating officer of the case
(C) Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor incharge of the case
(D) Person aggrieved by the offence
Ans:-C
11. Magistrate by whom the case is heard may award such compensation, not exceeding—
(A) One hundred
(B) Five hundred
(C) Three hundred
(D) One thousand
rupees to be paid to any person groundlessly arrested by the person so causing the arrest.
Ans:-A
12. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding—
(A) One hundred
(B) Two hundred
(C) Three hundred
(D) Two hundred and fifty rupees.
Ans:-A
13. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only, after the expiry of the period of limitation of—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Ninety days
(D) Six months
Ans:-D
14. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding—
(A) One year
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Seven years
Ans:-B
15. That there are certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place—
(A) Is a fact
(B) Is an opinion
(C) Is a document
(D) Is a motive
Ans:-A
16. An inscription on a metal plate or stone—
(A) Is a fact
(B) Is a document
(C) Is an opinion
(D) Is a motive
Ans:-B
17. ‘A’ is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked and goals are broken open. ‘A’ is not present at all of them yet the occurrence of these facts is relevant because—
(A) They constitute a motive for relevant fact
(B) They show preparation for relevant facts
(C) They are effect of relevant facts
(D) They form part of the general transaction
Ans:-D
18.‘A’ sues ‘B’ for a libel imputing disgraceful conduct to ‘A’. ‘B’ affirms that the matter alleged to be libelous is true. The position and relations of the parties at the time when the libel was published may be relevant—
(A) As constituting a motive for fact in issue
(B) As conduct influenced by fact in issue
(C) As introductory to facts in issue
(D) As preparation for fact in issue
Ans:-C
19. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. The fact that, on that day, ‘A’ was at Lahore is relevant—
(A) As a motive for fact in issue
(B) As introductory to fact in issue
(C) As preparation of relevant fact
(D) As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly improbable
Ans:-D
20. ‘A’ is accused of defaming ‘B’ by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of ‘B’. The fact of previous publication by ‘A’ respecting ‘B’, showing ill-will on the part of ‘A’ towards ‘B’ is relevant—
(A) Because it proves the preparation for harming ‘A’s’ reputation
(B) As it is necessary to explain fact in issue
(C) As proving intention to harm ‘B’s’ reputation
(D) As it is the effect of relevant fact
Ans:-C
21. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Admissions could be oral only
(B) Admissions could be documentary only
(C) Admissions could be oral or documentary
(D) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted
Ans:-C
22. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) No fact of which the Court will take notice need be proved
(B) Facts admitted need not be proved
(C) All facts and the contents of documents may be proved by oral evidence
(D) Oral evidence must be direct
Ans:-C
23. A document is said to be in the handwriting of ‘A’. That document is produced from proper custody. If the document is purporting or proved to be—
(A) Thirty
(B) Fifteen
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
Years old, Court may presume that it is in ‘A’s’ handwriting.
Ans:-A
24. A witness who is unable to speak gives his evidence by writing in open Court. Evidence so given shall be deemed to be—
(A) Orgal evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Primary evidence
(D) Secondary evidence
Ans:-A
25. The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called—
(A) Main examination
(B) Additional Cross-examination
(C) Re-examination
(D) Recross-examination
Ans:-C
26. A person summoned to produce a document when produces the document then—
(A) He becomes a witness
(B) He is cross-examined by both the parties
(C) He is cross-examined with the permission of the Court
(D) He does not become witness and cannot be cross-examined unless and until he is called as a witness
Ans:-D
27. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called—
(A) Indecent question
(B) Scandalous question
(C) Question intended to annoy
(D) Leading question
Ans:-D
28. ‘Accommodation’ means any building or part of building whether residential or non-residential and does not include—
(A) Garden appurtenant to such building
(B) Grounds appurtenant to such building
(C) Any land which is being used for agricultural purposes
(D) Any furniture supplied by the landlord for use in such building
Ans:-C
29. Suit against a tenant for his eviction from any accommodation could be filed on the ground that the tenant has neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrear of the rent legally recoverable from him within—
(A) Thirty days
(B) Two months
(C) Fifteen days
(D) Sixty days
of the date on which a notice of demand for the arrears of rent has been served on him by the landlord in the prescribed manner.
Ans:-B
30. Suit for eviction on the ground under Section 12(1) (d) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act is filed if the accommodation has not been used without reasonable cause for which it was let, for a continuous period of—
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) Ninety days
(D) Two months
Ans:-B
31. Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made on the ground that the accommodation is required bonafide by the landlord for occupation as a residence for himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to obtain possession thereof before the expiration of period of—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year
from the date of order.
Ans:-A
32. If after the tenant has de1ivere possession on or before the date specified in the order under clause (g) or clause (h) of subSection (1) of Section 12 of the M.P.Accommodation Control Act, landlord fails to commence the work of repairs or building or rebuilding within—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) One month
(D) Six months
of the specified date on an application made to it, Court may order landlord to place the tenant in occupation of the accommodation or part thereof.
Ans:-C
33. When an application for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement is filed before the Rent Controlling Authority and summons in prescribed form is served on the tenant, he shall not contest the prayer for eviction from accommodation unless he files application, in prescribed manner, to obtain leave to contest within—
(A) Thirty days
(B) One month
(C) Fifteen days
(D) Two months
from the date of service of the summons and obtains leave from the Rent Controlling Authority as provided.
Ans:-C
34. A landlord making false and frivolous application under Section 23(A) of M. P. Accommodation Control Act, may be saddled with compensatory costs not exceeding—
(A) Six month’s
(B) Nine month’s
(C) Eleven month’s
(D) One year’s rent of the accommodation at a time.
Ans:-D
35. The stay of the operation of the order of eviction passed by a Rent Controlling Authority or by the High Court shall not enure for a total period of more than—
Immediately preceding the date of suit for the recovery of possession of the filing thereof.
(A) Two months
(B) Four months
(C) Six months
(D) Sixty days
Ans:-C
36. Every tenant shall pay rent within the time fixed by the contract or in absence of any such contract by the—
(A) Sixteenth day
(B) Twenty-first day
(C) Fifteenth day.
(D) Last day
Ans:-C
37. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation let to him is cut-off by the landlord, who will make an order to restore such supply?
(A) Collector
(B) Civil Court
(C) Rent Controlling Authority
(D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be
Ans:-C
38. If the essential supply enjoyed by the tenenat is found to be cut-off by the landlord without just and sufficient cause, Rent Controlling Authority may direct that compensation not exceeding—
(A) One hundred rupees
(B) Three hundred rupees
(C) Five hundred rupees
(D) Fifty rupees
to be paid by the landlord to the tenant.
Ans:-D
39. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within—
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Three years
(D) Three months
from the date of commission of the offence.
Ans:-D
40. Provisions of Transfer of Property Act shall be applicable—
(A) Where property is transferred in execution of decree of the Court
(B) Where the property of insolvent vests in Receiver by the order of the Court
(C) Where the property is transferred by the act of parties
(D) To intestate succession
Ans:-C
41. ‘Attested’ in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to have mean attested by at least—
(A) One witness
(B) Two witnesses
(C) Three witnesses
(D) Four witnesses
Ans:-B
42. Which one of the following statements is not correct, in context of ‘transfer of property’?
(A) It means an act by which a living person conveys property
(B) He conveys property in present or in future
(C) He conveys property to one or more other living persons
(D) He cannot transfer property to himself and one or more other living persons
Ans:-D
43. To be competent to transfer property it is not essential that—
(A)Person be major
(B)Person be of sound mind
(C)Person is competent to contract
(D)Transferable property is his own
Ans:-D
44. How many types of mortgages are there in Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Even
Ans:-C
45. A mortgagor who has executed two or more mortgages in favo1ai of the same mortgagee, in absence of a contract to the contrary—
(A) Is bound to redeem all such mortgages together
(B) Is not entitled to redeem any one such mortgage separately
(C) Is bound to redeem at least two such mortgages together
(D) Be entitled to redeem any one such mortgage separately, or any two or more of such mortgages together
Ans:-D
46. A lease of immoveable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or lessee, by—
(A) One month
(B) Six months
(C) Three months
(D) Sixty days
notice expiring with the end of a year of the tenancy.
Ans:-B
47. A lease of immoveable property from year to year, can be made by—
(A) Oral agreement
(B) Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
(C) Simple instrument
(D) Only by a registered instrument
Ans:-D
48. Where a lease of immoveable property is made by a registered instrument, such instrument shall be executed—
(A) By lessor only
(B)By leassee only
(C)By either of the two
(D)By both the lessor and the lessee
Ans:-D
49. What is not required in ‘Gift’?
(A) Donor and donee
(B) Consideration
(C) Moveable or immoveable property
(D) Transfer and acceptance
Ans:-B
50. For the purpose of making a gift of immoveable property, the transfer must be affected—
(A) By delivery of possession
(B) By a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and duly attested
(C) By simple instrument
(D) By simple instrument accompanied by delivery of possession
Ans:-B

Electronics Objective Solved Questions

Electronics Objective Solved Questions
Electronics & Communication Engineering Solved Questions
DIGITAL ELECTRONICS
1.In which of the following base systems is 123 not a valid number?
(a) Base 10
(b) Base 16
(c)Base8
(d) Base 3
Ans:d
2. Storage of 1 KB means the following number of bytes
(a) 1000
(b)964
(c)1024
(d) 1064.
Ans:c
3. What is the octal equivalent of the binary number:
10111101
(a)675
(b)275
(c) 572
(d) 573.
Ans:b
4. Pick out the CORRECT statement:
(a) In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same value irrespective of its position
(b) The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal to the number of symbols in the system
(c) It is not always possible to find the exact binary
(d) Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of three binary symbols.
Ans:c
5.The binary code of (21.125)₁₀ is
(a) 10101.001
(b) 10100.001
(c) 10101.010
(d) 10100.111.
Ans:a
6.A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because
(a) it is used by everybody
(b) any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone
(c) all the minization techniques are applicable for optimum NAND gate realization
(d) many digital computers use NAND gates.
Ans:b
7. Digital computers are more widely used as compared to analog computers, because they are
(a) less expensive
(b) always more accurate and faster
(c) useful over wider ranges of problem types
(d) easier to maintain.
Ans:c
8. Most of the digital computers do not have floating point hardware because
(a) floating point hardware is costly
(b) it is slower than software
(c) it is not possible to perform floating point addition by hardware
(d) of no specific reason.
Ans:a
9. The number 1000 would appear just immediately after
(a) FFFF (hex)
(b) 1111 (binary)
(c) 7777 (octal)
(d) All of the above.
Ans:d

10. (1(10101)₂ is
(a) (37)₁₀
(b) ( 69)₁₀
(c) (41 )₁₀
(d) — (5)₁₀
Ans:a
11. The number of Boolean functions that can be generated by n variables is equal to
(a) 2ⁿ
(b) 2^{2 n}
(c) 2^n-1
(d) — 2ⁿ
Ans:b
12. Consider the representation of six-bit numbers by two’s complement, one’s complement, or by sign and magnitude: In which representation is there overflow from the addition of the integers 011000 and 011000?
(a) Two’s complement only
(b) Sign and magnitude and one’s complement only
(c) Two’s complement and one’s complement only
(d) All three representations.
Ans:d
13. A hexadecimal odometer displays F 52 F. The next reading will be
(a)F52E
(b)G52F
(c)F53F
(d)F53O.
Ans:d
14. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which
(a) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(b) logic 0 and, -1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
(c) logic 0 voltage level is higher than logic 1 voltage level
(d) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level.
Ans:d
15. Which of the following gate is a two-level logic gate
(a) OR gate
(b) NAND gate
(c) EXCLUSIVE OR gate
(d) NOT gate.
Ans:c
16. Among the logic families, the family which can be used at very high frequency greater than 100 MHz in a 4 bit
synchronous counter is
(a) TTLAS
(b) CMOS
(c)ECL
(d)TTLLS
Ans:c
17. An AND gate will function as OR if
(a) all the inputs to the gates are “1”
(b) all the inputs are ‘0’
(c) either of the inputs is “1”
(d) all the inputs and outputs are complemented.
Ans:d
18. An OR gate has 6 inputs. The number of input words in its truth table are
(a)6
(b)32
(c) 64
(d) 128
Ans:c
19. A debouncing circuit is
(a) an astable MV
(b) a bistable MV
(c) a latch
(d) a monostable MV.
Ans:c
20. NAND. gates are preferred over others because these
(a) have lower fabrication area
(b) can be used to make any gate
(c) consume least electronic power
(d) provide maximum density in a chip.
Ans:b
21. In case of OR gate, no matter what the number of inputs, a
(a) 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1
(b) 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 0
(c) 0 any input causes the output to be at logic 0
(d) 0 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1.
Ans:a
22. The fan put of a 7400 NAND gate is
(a)2TTL
(b)5TTL
(c)8TTL
(d)10TTL
Ans:d
23. Excess-3 code is known as
(a) Weighted code
(b) Cyclic redundancy code
(c) Self-complementing code
(d) Algebraic code.
Ans:c
24. Assuming 8 bits for data, 1 bit for parity, I start bit and 2 stop bits, the number of characters that 1200 BPS communication line can transmit is
(a)10 CPS
(b)120 CPS
(c) 12CPS
(d) None of the above.
Ans:c
25. Indicate which of the following three binary additions are correct?
1.1011 + 1010 = 10101
II. 1010 + 1101 = 10111
III. 1010 + 1101 = 11111
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III only
(d) II and III
Ans:a

Multiple Choice Questions For Judicial Service Examination

Multiple Choice Questions For Judicial Service Examination
Fully Solved MCQ for judicail service
Free online Judicial Service Examination Multiple Choice Questions
1. An executing court cannot determine the questions relating to which of the following?
(A) Execution of decree
(B) Discharge of decree
(C) Satisfaction of decree
(D) Modification of decree
Ans:-D
2. A person against whom summons has been issued may be compelled under Sec. 32 of C.P.C. to attend by—
1. Issue of a warrant
2. Attachment and sale of his property
3. Imposing a fine
4. Ordering him to furnish security for his appearance
Select the correct answer with the help of the code given below—
Code:
(A) l and 4
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans:-C
3. Provision for interpleader suit is contained in which of the following sections of C.P.C.?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 88
(C) Section 89
(D) Section 90
Ans:-B
4. Which one of the following is not a suit relating to immovable property?
(A) Suit for recovery of immovable property
(B) Suit for partition of immovable property
(C) Suit for redemption of mortgaged property
(D) Suit for rent in respect of immovable property
Ans:-D
5. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on—
(A) 1St April, 2002
(B) 1st June, 2002
(C) 6th June, 2002
(D) 1st July, 2002
Ans:-D
6. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provision of—
(A) Section 17 of C.P.C.
(B) Section 18 of C.P.C.
(C) Section 19 of C.P.C.
(D) Section 20 of C.P.C.
Ans:-B
7. In which of the following provisions ‘mesne profit’ has been defined in the C.P.C.?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(8)
(C) Section 2(12)
(D) Section 2(14)
Ans:-C
8. The period of limitation within which defendant shall submit his wrtn statement is—
(A) 30 days from service of summons
(B) 40 days from service of summons
(C) 60 days from service of summons
(D) 90 days from service of summons
Ans:-A
9. In which of the following writs, the doctrine of res judicata is not applicable?
(A) Certiorari
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Habeas Corpus
Ans:-D
10. Which one of the following properties is liable to attachment and sale in the execution of a decree?
(A) Right to future maintenance
(B) A promissory note
(C) Book of account
(D) A right of personal service
Ans:-B
11. Which one of the following is not a suit of civil nature under C.P.C.?
(A) A suit against deprivation from attending social functions
(B) A suit for arrears of salary
(C) A suit for right of burial
(D) A suit for restitution of conjugal rights
Ans:-A
12. Which one of the following does not find a place under the provisions of Sec. 94, C.P.C. relating to supplemental proceedings?
(A) Arrest before judgement
(B) Attachment before judgement
(C) Temporary injunction
(D) Appointment of executors
Ans:-A
13. Which one of the following is not required in filing a representative suit under Order 1Rule 8 of the C.P.C.?
(A) Numerous parties
(B) Same interest
(C) Leave of the court
(D) Written permission of those who are being represented
Ans:-D
14. The provision for the institution of suits is given in which of the following sections of C.P.C.?
(A) Section 26
(B) Section 30
(C) Section 28
(D) Section 25
Ans:-A
15. A right to sue for damages is—
(A) An actionable claim
(B) Not an actionable claim
(C) Not only a mere right to sue
(D) Transferable
Ans:-B
16. The doctrine of part performance as given in Sec. 53-A of T.P. Act is—
1. A statutory right
2. An equitable right
3. Available in defence
Code:
(A) l and 3
(B) l and 2
(C) 2
(D) 2 and 3
Ans:-D
17. Assertion (A): Property is a comprehensive term and includes copyright.
Reason (R) : Transfer of property Act deals with all kinds of property including patents.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-B
18. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
1. Mesne profit — Actionable Claim
2. Claim of a Muslim wife for unpaid dower — Actionable Claim
3. Unsecured debt — Actionable Claim
4. Profit under a sale of goods contract – Actionable Claim
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) l and 4
Ans:-A
19. Remedy of ‘foreclosure’ is available in which one of the following mortgages?
(A) Usufructuary mortage
(B) Simple mortgage
(C) Mortgage by condition sale
(D) English mortage
Ans:-C
20. Which one of the f6llowing is not an essential element of sale?
(A) Parties
(B) Subject matter
(C) Transfer or conveyance
(D) Payment of price in cash
Ans:-D
21. ‘Rule against double possibilities’ was recognised in which one of the following cases?
(A) Girjesh Dutt V/s Datadin
(B) Whitby V/s Mitchell
(C) Ardeshir V/s Dadabhoy
(D) Sopher V/s Administrator General of Bengal
Ans:-B
22. Which one of the following sections of T.P. Act deals with doctrine of ‘substituted
security’?
(A) Section—68
(B) Section—70
(C) Section—71
(D) Section—73
Ans:-C
23. Which is correct answer in the following?
(A) Section 60 of T.P. Act is enforceable on mortagage decrees
(B) Sale or purchase agreements are saleable properties and liable for attachment
(C) ‘Hereditary profession’ is liable for attachment
(D) Motor pump which is used in irrigation is liable for attachment
Ans:-A
24. Ram Coomar Kundoo V/s Mc Queen (1872) is related to—
(A) Lis pendens
(B) Ostensible owner
(C) Part performance
(D) Mortgage
Ans:-B
25. The principle of the maxim “nemo dat quad non habet” is incorporated in which of the following sections of T.P. Act?
(A) Sections 41, 42, 43 and 44
(B) Sections 41, and 42
(C) Sections 41 and
(D) Sections 41 and 43
Ans:-A
26. Doctrine of Marshalling has been provided in which of the following sections of the
T.P. Act?
(A) Sections 56 and 81
(B) Sections 56 and 82
(C) Sections 56, 81, 82
(D) Sections 81 and 82
Ans:-A
27. Section 58 (a) of the T.P. Act defines—
(A) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee and mortgage money
(B) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee and mortgage deed
(C) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee, mortgage money and mortgage deed
(D) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgage money and mortgage deed
Ans:-C
28. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, a mother is—
(A) Entitled to live along with her son’s family
(B) Not entitled to live along with her son’s family
(C) Morally entitled to her son’s care
(D) Entitled to have separate accommodation from her son
Ans:-D
29. Which of the following ancient forms of marriages were not approved by Hindu Law?
1. Gandharva
2. Arsha
3. Prajapatya
4. Asura
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) l and 4
Ans:-D
30. A boy of 17 years marries a girl of 15 years. The marriage is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid and not punishable
(D) Valid and punishable
Ans:-D
31. (A) marries ‘B’, the widow of his elder brother. The marriage is—
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
32. An adoption made by a Hindu male without the consent of his wife is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Invalid
Ans:-A
33. Coparcenary property of a Hindu—
1. Devolves by succession
2. Devolves by survivorship
3. Can be partitioned
4. Cannot be partitioned
Select the correct answer with the help of code give below—
Code:
(A) l and 2
(B) 2 and3
(C) l and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans:-B
34. The statement “While there is no rose which has no thorn but if what you hold is all thorn and no rose, better throw it sway” relates to-
(A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
(C) Divorce by mutual consent
(D) Irretrievable break-down of marriage theory of divorce
Ans:-C
35. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 a female Hindu has the capacity to take a son or daughter in adoption if—
(A) She is not married
(B) She is married
(C) She is widow and has no son or daughter but has a widowed daughter-in-law
(D) She cannot adopt at all
Ans:-A
36. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains the provision regarding divorce in—
(A) Section 10
(B) Section 11
(C) Section 13
(D) Section 15
Ans:-C
37. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for the restitution of conjugal
Rights?
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 13
Ans:-A
38. Which one of the following is not included in the term ‘Hindu’ used in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Sikhs
(B) Jams
(C) Parsis
(D) Buddhists
Ans:-C
39. A marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 between two persons within prohibited degrees of relationship is—
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) Irregular
Ans:-B
40. Adultery by a Hindu husband is—
(A) Ground of divorce only
(B)Not a ground of divorce
(C)Ground of judicial separation only
(D)Ground of divorce and Judicial separation of the both
Ans:-D
41. The natural guardian of a minor Hindu boy is—
(A) Only mother
(B) Only father
(C) Grand father
(D) Father and mother both
Ans:-D
42. Which one is not a source of Muslim Law?
(A) The Quran
(B) Shariat
(C) Hadis
(D) Ijmaa
Ans:-B
43. On the ground of fosterage a Muslim marriage is—
(A) Void (Batil)
(B) Vaild (Sahih)
(C) Irregular (Fasid)
(D) Muta
Ans:-A
44. Which of the following are sources of Muslim Law ?
(A) Quran
(B) Ijmaa
(C) Kiyas (Qiyas)
(D) All the above
Ans:-D
45. The legal guardian of a muslim minor female is—
(A) Father
(B) Grandfather
(C) Mother
(D) Maternal uncle
Ans:-C
46. Which one of the following is not essential for a valid marriage under Muslim Law?
(A) Offer and acceptance
(B) Competent parties
(C) Fosterage
(D) Free consent
Ans:-C
47. Dower in Muslim Law is—
1. Dowry
2. An obligation imposed upon the husband as a mark of respect for wife
3. Consideration for marriage
4. A legal right of the wife
Select the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2,3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans:-C
48. Talak-ul-biddat is—
(A) Complete and irrevocable divorce
(B) Incomplete and irrevocable divorce
(C) Complete and revocable divorce
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
49. In respect of family relations, the law applicable in India is—
(A) Secular law in India
(B) Statutory law
(C) Religious law
(D) Personal law of the parties
Ans:-D
50. Under the Constitution of India, all aspects of family law are in the—
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C

Law objective solved question papers

Law objective solved question papers
Solved Sample Question Paper Law Admission
Modal test Paper of Law
1. What writ can be issued for an illegal detention?
(A) Writ of Prohibition
(B) Writ of Mandamus
(C) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(D) Writ of Quo Warranto
Ans:-C
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been borrowed from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Canada
(C) Ireland
(D) Russia
Ans:-C
3. Give the correct response— Article 15(1) prohibits that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on ground only of—
(A) Religion, race, sex and place of birth
(B) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and descent
(C) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place of birth
(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
Ans:-D
4. Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are declared void?
(A) Article 12
(B) Articlrl3
(C) Article 11
(D) Article 21
Ans:-B
5. Which one of the following does not fall within the meaning of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Barkatullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal
(B) Government of India and the Parliament
(C) British Airways Corporation
(D) Bhopal Municipal Corporation
Ans:-C
6. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article
19 of the Constitution are available only to—
(A) Citizens of India
(B) Citizens of India and Foreigners
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) Foreigners living in India
Ans:-A
7. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution provision regarding unified civil
code has been given?
(A) 43rd
(B) 44th
(C) 46th
(D) 47th
Ans:-B
8. For the post of President of India the minimum age of the person should be—
(A) 21 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 35 years
Ans:-D
9. Who does not have the right to vote in the election of President of India?
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
(C) President’s nominee in Rajya Sabha
(D) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans:-C
10. By the Presidents Employment and Pension (Amendment) Act, 1998, the salary of the President has been enhanced to—
(A) From Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 20,000 per month
(B) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 25,000 per month
(C) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 50,000 per month
(D) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 45,000 per month
Ans:-C
11. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is by reason of absence or otherwise unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of his office shall be performed by—
(A) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the Chief Justice of India
(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the President of India
(C) Any senior most judge of the Supreme Court after the Chief Justice
(D) Any one of the above
Ans:-B
12. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the Constitution itself and not in ‘we the people of India’. This ideology was expressed in—
(A) Lucknow Development Authority V/s A.K. Gupta case
(B) Sankari Prasad case
(C) Golak Nath case
(D) Keswanand Bharti’s case
Ans:-D
13. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed that labour taken from prisoners without paying proper remunerations comes within forced labour?
(A) Deena V/s Union of India
(B) Menka Gandhi V/s Union of India
(C) Sanjit Roy V/s State of Rajasthan
(D) All of the above
Ans:-A
14. Under which of the following Articles the President of India has a right to suspend the implementation of fundamental rights during proclamation of emergency?
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 353
Ans:-A
15. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution the Supreme Court has powers to review its decisions?
(A) Article 135
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 137
(D) Article 143
Ans:-C
16. Which one of the following is not essential for an offence?
(A) Intention
(B) Motive
(C) Prohibited act
(D) Punishment for act
Ans:-B
17.In which of the following means rea has been considered to be an essential element of an offence?
(A) Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor
(B) R, V/s Tolson
(C) Nathulal V/s State of Madhya Pradesh
(D) In all of the above
Ans:-D
18. The grounds for punishing Prince in R. V/s Prince was—
(A) Prohibited act done by Prince
(B) Illegal act done by Prince
(C) Knowingly committing of civil wrong by Prince
(D) Illegal and prohibited act done by Prince
Ans:-D
19. Who amongst the following has observed that under the Indian Penal Code such a maxim ‘Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea’ is wholly out of place?
(A) J.D. Mayne, Criminal Law of India
(B) H.S. Gour, Penal Law of India
(C) Ratan Lal Dheeraj Lal, Law of Crimes
(D) All of the above
Ans:-D
20. Which one of the following preparation is not an offence?
(A) Preparation for robbery of a Bank
(B) Preparation of dacoity in a Bank
(C) To make die for counterfeiting coins
(D) To make die for counterfeiting Indian coins.
Ans:-A
21. For abduction the abducted person should be—
(A) Below 16 years of age
(B) Below 18 years of age
(C) Insane person
(D) Of any age
Ans:-D
22. A does sexual intercourse with a widow below 16 years of age with her consent—
(A) A has not committed rape
(B) A has committed adultery
(C) A has committed rape with B
(D) Nothing above is correct
Ans:-C
23. A male teacher during examination, while conducting search, put his hands in the pocket of the pant of a girl candidate thinking her to be a boy. Here the teacher, under the Penal Code, has committed the offence under Section—
(A) 354
(B) 323
(C) 509
(D) No offence
Ans:-D
24. The case of Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab is concerned with—
(A) Capital punishment in India
(B) Custody of under trial prisoners
(C) Prosecution for attempted suicide
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
25. In which of the following cases the Privy Council made a distinction between ‘common intention’ and ‘similar intention’?
(A) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor
(B) Mahboob Shah V/s King Emperor
(C) Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor
(D) Bannu Mal V/s Emperor
Ans:-B
26. In connection with the right of a private defence of body give the correct response—
(A) This right is not available against an unsound person.
(B) This right is not available against a person below 7 years of age
(C) This right is available against any person
(D) This right is not available against parents
Ans:-C
27. A and B both are of 16 years of age. A entices B for marriage and takes her to another city. What offence has been committed by A?
(A) A has committed kidnapping
(B) A has committed no offence as B has gone with her own consent
(C) A has committed abduction
(D) A is himself minor. Hence A has committed no offence
Ans:-A
28. A abets B to commit a theft from the house of C.B finding an opportunity picks C’s pocket while C was travelling by a bus. Give the correct answer—
(A) A is responsible for abetment o theft
(B) A is not responsible for abetment of picking of pocket
(C) A is not responsible for abetment of committing theft because theft has
not been committed from the house
(D) All the above are correct
Ans:-A
29. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) In every robbery there are at least two persons
(B) In every robbery there is a fear of violence
(C) In every robbery there is either theft or extortion
(D) In every Dacoity there is robbery
Ans:-A
30. Which one of the following cases does not relate to intoxication?
(A) D.P.P. V/s Beard
(B) Basudeo V/s State of Pepsu
(C) R. V/s Mcnaughten
(D) R. V/s Tandy
Ans:-C
31. A snake-charmer while showing his play claims to cure the snake bite. The deceased got himself a snake bite believing on assurance of the snake-charmer. The snake- charmer could not cure the deceased. The snake-charmer is liable for—
(A) Murder
(B) Cheating
(C) May be liable for culpable homicide
(D) Liable for nothing
Ans:-A
32. Which one of the following is not correct?
(A) For theft property must be movable
(B) For theft property must be removed out of the possession of the owner of property
(C) For theft property should have been removed for taking it away
(D) For theft property should be removed dishonestly
Ans:-B
33. A meets B on high roads, shows a pistol and demands B’s purse. B in consequence, surrenders his purse. Here A has committed—
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Robbery
(D) Dacoity
Ans:-C
34. Six persons are prosecuted for dacoity. The court released two of them for benefit of doubt of Coinstar money transfer their identity. The rest four—
(A) Can be convicted for dacoity
(B) Cannot be convicted for dacoity
(C) Can be convicted for robbery because their number falls short of five
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans:-A
35. Which one of the following is not essential for the offence of affray?
(A) Number of persons is two or more than two
(B) Persons are members of unlawful assembly
(C) Fighting is at public place
(D) Public peace is disturbed
Ans:-B
36. Mark the correct answer— The conditional order passed by a Magistrate under Section 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code cannot be challenged in civil court. This statement is—
(A) Wrong
(B) Correct
(C) Partly wrong
(D) Partly correct
Ans:-B
37. A was travelling from Bhopal to Jabalpur by Rajkot-Jabalpur Express Train. At Itarsi A caused grievous hurt to B who was the resident of Jabalpur. Where will the case be tried?
(A) At Bhopal from where A started his journey
(B) At Jabalpur of where B was the resident
(C) At Itarsi where A caused grievous hurt to B
(D) At the place where M.P. High Court decides
Ans:-C
38. Which of the following Court can try a murder case?
(A) Magistrate 1st Class
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) Additional Sessions Judge
(D) Any of these Courts
Ans:-C
39. Warrant case relates to an offence punishable with—
(A) More than one year imprisonment
(B) More than three years imprisonment
(C) Death penalty, life imprisonment or imprisonment more than two years
(D) More than five years imprisonment
Ans:-C
40. Under Section 145 of the Cr. P.C. in connection with a dispute on immovable property, the executive magistrate prior to passing his orders as regards to possession over such property which one of the following periods he takes into consideration?
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Four months
(D) Six months
Ans:-B
41. Under Section 106 of the Criminal Procedure code which of the following courts has power to release the offender on security for keeping the peace and for good behaviour?
(A) Sessions Court
(B) Magistrate 1st Class
(C) Appellate or Revisional Court
(D) All of the above
Ans:-D
42. Now under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code what payments per month can be ordered for maintenance?
(A) 50% on the basis of salary of the person
(B) Upto Rs. 500
(C) Upto Rs. 3,000
(D) As the Magistrate deems necessary in the circumstances
Ans:-D
43. Which of the following cannot claim maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal
Procedure Code?
(A) Wife who cannot maintain herself
(B) Mother or father who cannot maintain herself or himself
(C) Major married daughter who cannot maintain herself
(D) Minor illegitimate daughter who cannot maintain herself
Ans:-C
44. For invoking Section 133 of Cr.P.C. where should not be the inconvenience or invasion on—
(A) Public rights
(B) Public place
(C) Private place or private persons
(D) All of the above
Ans:-D
45. Under Section 29 of the Criminal Procedure Code the second class Magistrate can pass sentence upto—
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) All of these
Ans:-A
46. Which one of the following offences cannot be summarily tried?
(A) Grievous hurt
(B) Theft when the value of stolen property is below Rs. 200
(C) Offences relating to Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Offence of abetment of the offences enumerated under Section 260(vii) of the Criminal Procedure Code
Ans:-A
47. Under Chapter XXI of Criminal Procedure Code while adopting summary trial maximum punishment cannot be passed more than—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Four months
(D) One month
Ans:-B
48. Under Section 198 of the Criminal Procedure Code the court can take cognizance of any offence laid down under Section 497 and 498 of the Indian Penal Code on the complaint of—
(A) Husband of the woman
(B) Father of the woman
(C) Mother of the woman
(D) Any of these
Ans:-A
49. Which one of the following proceedings is known as judicial proceeding?
(A) Investigation
(B) Enquiry and Investigation
(C) Enquiry and Trial
(D) Trial and Investigation
Ans:-C
50. Under Criminal Procedure Code to what maximum period an accused can be ordered to be kept in police custody by the Magistrate?
(A) Three days
(B) Seven days
(C) Ten days
(D) Fifteen days
Ans:-D

Free online practice law objective Questions for exams

Free online practice law objective Questions for exams
Law Sample Paper for Civil Judge Public Prosecutor Exams
1. A Muslim goes to any country of the world—
(A) With his personal law
(B) Without his personal law
(C) Leaving his personal law in hi country
(D) With an object of obeying the laws of the country concerned which includes personal law
Ans:-D
2. Where a Muslim male and a Muslim female contract their marriage under the Special Marriage Act. 1954, Muslim personal law—
(A) Applies to such marriage
(B) Does not apply
(C) Applies with some modifications
(D) Applies with the Indian Contract Act.
Ans:-B
3. Under the Shia Law, if the husband has capacity to speak but announces Talak in writing the Talak is—
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Void
(D) Valid barring certain circumstances
Ans:-C
4. Under the Muslim Law, marriage is regarded as a—
(A) Sacrament
(B) Contract
(C) Social need
(D) Tradition
Ans:-B
5. The essential condition of a gift under Muslim Law is—
(A) Declaration of the gift by the donor
(B) Acceptance of the gift by the donor
(C) Delivery of possession of subject matter of the gift
(D) All the above
Ans:-D
6. Wakf can be made by—
(A) A Muslim only
(B) A Hindu only
(C) Both Hindu and Muslim
(D) Neither by Hindu nor by Muslim
Ans:-A
7. Hanuman Prasad V/s Musammat Babooee is a case on—
(A) Powers of a Karta of the Hindu joint family
(B) Avyavaharik debt
(C)Power of adoption of a widow
(D)None of the above
Ans:-A
8. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for conditions of marriage?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 9
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 11
Ans:-A
9. In which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 general rules of succession in the case of female Hindus is provided?
(A) Section 15 ,
(B) Section 14
(C) Section 18
(D) Section 16
Ans:-A
10. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into force on—
(A) 1st January, 1955
(B) 1st May, 1955
(C) 26th January, 1955
(D) 18th May, 1955
Ans:-D
11. Dastane V/s Dastane is a case on—
(A) Adoption
(B) Divorce
(C) Marriage
(D) Maintenance
Ans:-B
12. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(A) Divorce by mutual consent has been provided under the Hindu Marriage Act, from its inception
(B) Divorce by mutual consent was introduced by Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Act, 1976
(C) Divorce by mutual consent has been provided under Sec. 13-A of the Hindu Marriage Act
(D) A petition for divorce by mutual consent must be presented within one year of marriage
Ans:-B
13. Match List-I and List—IT and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(a) Marriage between parties within degrees of prohibited relationship
(b) Impotency
(c) Marriage between two sapindas of each other
(d) Pregnancy of wife at the time of marriage by some person other than the petitioner
List-II
1. Voidable 2. Void
3. Voidable 4. Void
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans:-A
14. Assertion (A) A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law.
Reason (R) A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents.
Choose the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-B
15. Assertion (A) : Extra judicial confession, if voluntary, can be relied upon with other evidence.
Reason (R) Extra judicial confession is a weak piece of evidence.
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
16. Which one of the following sections of the Evidence Act defines admission?
(A) Section 16
(B) Section 17
(C) Section 20
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
17 Which of the following does not find a mention as showing state of mind under Sec. 14 of the Evidence Act?
(A) Intention
(B) Knowledge
(C) Motive
(D) Good faith
Ans:-C
18. Which one of the following is not essential condition for admissibility of dying declaration?
(A) Death of the person making dying declaration
(B) Statement must be as to the cause of his death
(C) Person making statement was under expectation of death at the time he made the statement
(D) Statement is as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted into his death
Ans:-C
19. Under which of the Following provisions of the Evidence Act the word “forming part of the same transaction” occurs?
(A) Under Sec. 5
(B) Under Sec. 6
(C) Under Sec. 7
(D) Under Sec. 8
Ans:-B
20. “A’ s” death is caused due to negligent driving of ‘B’. In the suit for damages against ‘B’ which of the following fact is not relevant?
(A) The fact that ‘A’ was an young man of 30 years
(B) The fact that ‘A’ was an young man with good physique
(C) The fact that ‘A’ had qualified in P.C.S.
(D) The fact that ‘B’ was in the habit of driving negligently
Ans:-C
21. The provision relating to estoppels is contained in the Evidence Act in—
(A) Section 115
(B) Section 117
(C) Section 118
(D) Section 114
Ans:-A
22. Presumption as to abetment to commit suicide by a married woman has been given—
(A) Under Sec. 114 of the Evidence Act
(B) Under Sec. 113-A of the Evidence Act
(C) Under Sec. 113-B of the Evidence Act
(D) Under Sec. 112 of the Evidence Act
Ans:-B
23. Which one of the following is not a public document?
(A) An unregistered family settlement
(B) A registered sale deed
(C) Judgement of a High Court
(D) Judgement of a Civil Judge
Ans:-A
24. Which Sec. of Indian Evidence Act is based on the maxim SALUS POPULIEST SUMREMA LEX?
(A) Section 119
(B) Section 120
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 123
Ans:-D
25. A fact neither proved nor disproved is known as—
(A) Proved
(B) Disproved
(C) Not proved
(D) Conclusive proof
Ans:-C
26. The case, Pakala Narain Swamy V/s Emperor relates to—
(A) Doctrine of estoppels
(B) Dying declaration
(C) Accomplice
(D) Cross-examination
Ans:-B
27. Match List-I and List—II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(Relevancy of facts)
(a) Facts as effect of facts in issue
(b) Facts forming part of same transaction
(c) Facts which constitute preparation for any fact in issue
(d) Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts
List—II
(Section of Evidence Acts)
1. Sec.9
2. Sec.8
3. Sec. 7
4. Sec. 6
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-C
28. Which one of the following provisions of the Evidence Act provides that previous bad character of an accused is not relevant?
(A) Section 54
(B) Section 52
(C) Section 53
(D) Section 118
Ans:-A
29. Which of the following section of the Evidence Act says that confession caused by
Inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant?
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 26
(C) Section 27
(D) None of these
Ans:-D
30. In which of the following cases it was held that Sec. 27 of the Evidence Act is an exception to Sections 24, 25 and 26?
(A) Pakala Narain Swamy V/s King Emperor
(B) Inayatullah V/s State of Maharashtra
(C) State of U.P. V/s Deoman Upadhyay
(D) Kotayya V/s King Emperor
Ans:-D
31. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be—
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Primary evidence
(D) Secondary evidence
Ans:-A
32. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called—
(A) Indecent question
(B) Scandalous question
(C) Question intended to annoy
(D) Leading question
Ans:-D
33. Leading question—
(A) May be asked in examination-in-chief
(B) May be asked in cross-examination
(C) May be asked in re-examination
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances
Ans:-B
34. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Admissions can be oral only
(B) Admissions can be documentary only
(C) Admissions can be oral or documentary
(D) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted
Ans:-C
35. The facts, though not in issue, are so connected with fact in issue, as to form part of same transaction are—
(A) Relevant under the rule of res gestae
(B) Not relevant
(C) Hearsay evidence
(D) Primary evidence
Ans:-A
36. Admissions and confessions are—
1. Exception to the hearsay evidence
2. Part of hearsay evidence
3. From relevant evidence
4. Admitted in evidence on proof
Select the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1,2 and 4
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) l and 2
(D) 2
Ans:-B
37. Under which section of Cr.PC. Sessions Court exercises power of appeal from convictions?
(A) Sections 372
(B) Sections 397
(C) Sections 374
(D) Sections 398
Ans:-C
38. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an order from attachment of property of person absconding may be passed at any time after the issue of the proclamation?
(A) Section 83
(B) Section 82
(C) Section 84
(D) Section 85
Ans:-A
39. Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides for confirmation by the High Court of an order of death sentence passed by Sessions Court prior to its execution?
(A) Section 368
(B) Section 366
(C) Section 371
(D) Section 369
Ans:-B
40. When the Sessions Judge or the High Court calls for to examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it is known as—
(A) Reference
(B) Review
(C) Revision
(D) None of these
Ans:-C
41. Which one of the following orders can be passed after the trial of a case is over?
(A) Only an order of acquittal
(B) Only an order of conviction
(C) Order of discharge
(D) Either an order of acquittal or conviction
Ans:-D
42. First Information Report—
(A) Relates to cognizable or non-cognizable offence
(B) Is given to a Magistrate or Police Officer
(C) Relates prima facie to a cognizable offence
(D) May be given to the District Magistrate
Ans:-C
43. Under which Section of the Cr.P.Code anticipatory bail may be granted to a person
Apprehending his arrest?
(A) Section 438
(B) Section 439
(C) Section 436
(D) Section 437
Ans:-A
44. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
1. Made by a Magistrate Investigation
2. Object is to collect evidence Inquiry
3. Ordinarily second stage of Inquiry a criminal case
4. It is not a judicial Investigation proceeding
Select the correct answer with the help of the code given below—
Code:
(A) l and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans:-C
45.Assertion (A) : The purpose of criminal law is to prevent crimes.
Reason (R) : In certain situations even a private person can arrest another person.
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) .
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false ‘
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
46. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding two years relates to—
(A) Summon case
(B) Warrant case
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
47. Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Police Officer can arrest a person without an order
From a Magistate and without warrant?
(A) Section 42
(B) Section 40
(C) Section 51
(D) Section 41
Ans:-D
48. Under which section of the Cr.P.C. a person who is avoiding execution of a warrant may be proclaimed absconder?
(A) Section 81
(B) Section 83
(C) Section 82
(D) Section 84
Ans:-C
49. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an accused person can himself be a competent witness?
(A) Section 315
(B) Section 300
(C) Section 313
(D) Section 317
Ans:-A
50. Who among the following is authorised to record a confessional statement under
Section164 Cr.P.C?
(A) A Police Officer
(B) An Executive Magistrate
(C) A Judicial Magistrate
(D) Neither an Executive Magistrate nor a Judicial Magistrate
Ans:-C
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