Friday, May 15, 2015

Online Free indian law MCQ

Online Free indian law MCQ
law degrees MCQ Quiz Indian laws
Objective Solved Questions Indian law
law objective test for law officers ,Manger (law) jobs exam
Law Exams: Model Questions ,Objective Questions free online
1. A person shall be elgib1e to be appointed as an Additional Public Prosecutor only if he has been in practice as an advocate for not less than—
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Seven years.
(D) Three
2. The Central Government or the State Government may appoint for the purposes of any case or class of cases, a person who has been in practice as advocate for not less than—
(A) Five
(B) Seven
(C) Eight
(D) Ten,
Years as a Special Public Prosecutor.
3. The Court of a Magistrate of first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding—
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) Four years
4. The Court of a Magistrate of the second class may pass a sentence of fine not exceeding—
(A) One thousand
(B) Three thousand
(C) Five thousand
(D) Ten thousand rupees.
5. If a person in lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody he escaped may, immediately pursue and arrest him—
(A) Within local limits of the police station concerned
(B) Within local limits of the district
(C) Within local limits of the state
(D) In any place in India
6. In proceeding under Section 107 of Code of Criminal Procedure an Executive Magistrate may require to execute a bond for keeping peace for such period, not exceeding—
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Six months
as the Magistrate thinks fit.
7. In reference of information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) It may be given orally to an officer incharge of a police station
(B) It is reduced to writing by or under the direction of the officer incharge of the police station
(C) Information reduced to writing is to be signed by the person giving it
(D) Copy of information cannot be given, free of cost, to the informant
8. Any person, who has accepted a tender of pardon made under Section 306 or Section 307, has, either by willfully concealing anything essential or by giving false evidence, not complied with the condition on which the tender was made. Who will certify this fact?
(A) District Magistrate
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) Public Prosecutor
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
9. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure is dead, then—
(A) Offence cannot be compounded
(B) Offence can be compounded by any of the eye-witnesses
(C) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence without the consent of the Court
(D) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the Court
10. At any time before the Judgement is pronounced, prosecution of any person may be withdrawn with the consent of the Court by
(A) On whose instance first information report was recorded
(B) Investigating officer of the case
(C) Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor incharge of the case
(D) Person aggrieved by the offence
11. Magistrate by whom the case is heard may award such compensation, not exceeding—
(A) One hundred
(B) Five hundred
(C) Three hundred
(D) One thousand
rupees to be paid to any person groundlessly arrested by the person so causing the arrest.
12. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding—
(A) One hundred
(B) Two hundred
(C) Three hundred
(D) Two hundred and fifty rupees.
13. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only, after the expiry of the period of limitation of—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Ninety days
(D) Six months
14. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding—
(A) One year
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Seven years
15. That there are certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place—
(A) Is a fact
(B) Is an opinion
(C) Is a document
(D) Is a motive
16. An inscription on a metal plate or stone—
(A) Is a fact
(B) Is a document
(C) Is an opinion
(D) Is a motive
17. ‘A’ is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked and goals are broken open. ‘A’ is not present at all of them yet the occurrence of these facts is relevant because—
(A) They constitute a motive for relevant fact
(B) They show preparation for relevant facts
(C) They are effect of relevant facts
(D) They form part of the general transaction
18.‘A’ sues ‘B’ for a libel imputing disgraceful conduct to ‘A’. ‘B’ affirms that the matter alleged to be libelous is true. The position and relations of the parties at the time when the libel was published may be relevant—
(A) As constituting a motive for fact in issue
(B) As conduct influenced by fact in issue
(C) As introductory to facts in issue
(D) As preparation for fact in issue
19. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. The fact that, on that day, ‘A’ was at Lahore is relevant—
(A) As a motive for fact in issue
(B) As introductory to fact in issue
(C) As preparation of relevant fact
(D) As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly improbable
20. ‘A’ is accused of defaming ‘B’ by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of ‘B’. The fact of previous publication by ‘A’ respecting ‘B’, showing ill-will on the part of ‘A’ towards ‘B’ is relevant—
(A) Because it proves the preparation for harming ‘A’s’ reputation
(B) As it is necessary to explain fact in issue
(C) As proving intention to harm ‘B’s’ reputation
(D) As it is the effect of relevant fact
21. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Admissions could be oral only
(B) Admissions could be documentary only
(C) Admissions could be oral or documentary
(D) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted
22. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) No fact of which the Court will take notice need be proved
(B) Facts admitted need not be proved
(C) All facts and the contents of documents may be proved by oral evidence
(D) Oral evidence must be direct
23. A document is said to be in the handwriting of ‘A’. That document is produced from proper custody. If the document is purporting or proved to be—
(A) Thirty
(B) Fifteen
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
Years old, Court may presume that it is in ‘A’s’ handwriting.
24. A witness who is unable to speak gives his evidence by writing in open Court. Evidence so given shall be deemed to be—
(A) Orgal evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Primary evidence
(D) Secondary evidence
25. The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called—
(A) Main examination
(B) Additional Cross-examination
(C) Re-examination
(D) Recross-examination
26. A person summoned to produce a document when produces the document then—
(A) He becomes a witness
(B) He is cross-examined by both the parties
(C) He is cross-examined with the permission of the Court
(D) He does not become witness and cannot be cross-examined unless and until he is called as a witness
27. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called—
(A) Indecent question
(B) Scandalous question
(C) Question intended to annoy
(D) Leading question
28. ‘Accommodation’ means any building or part of building whether residential or non-residential and does not include—
(A) Garden appurtenant to such building
(B) Grounds appurtenant to such building
(C) Any land which is being used for agricultural purposes
(D) Any furniture supplied by the landlord for use in such building
29. Suit against a tenant for his eviction from any accommodation could be filed on the ground that the tenant has neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrear of the rent legally recoverable from him within—
(A) Thirty days
(B) Two months
(C) Fifteen days
(D) Sixty days
of the date on which a notice of demand for the arrears of rent has been served on him by the landlord in the prescribed manner.
30. Suit for eviction on the ground under Section 12(1) (d) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act is filed if the accommodation has not been used without reasonable cause for which it was let, for a continuous period of—
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) Ninety days
(D) Two months
31. Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made on the ground that the accommodation is required bonafide by the landlord for occupation as a residence for himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to obtain possession thereof before the expiration of period of—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year
from the date of order.
32. If after the tenant has de1ivere possession on or before the date specified in the order under clause (g) or clause (h) of subSection (1) of Section 12 of the M.P.Accommodation Control Act, landlord fails to commence the work of repairs or building or rebuilding within—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) One month
(D) Six months
of the specified date on an application made to it, Court may order landlord to place the tenant in occupation of the accommodation or part thereof.
33. When an application for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement is filed before the Rent Controlling Authority and summons in prescribed form is served on the tenant, he shall not contest the prayer for eviction from accommodation unless he files application, in prescribed manner, to obtain leave to contest within—
(A) Thirty days
(B) One month
(C) Fifteen days
(D) Two months
from the date of service of the summons and obtains leave from the Rent Controlling Authority as provided.
34. A landlord making false and frivolous application under Section 23(A) of M. P. Accommodation Control Act, may be saddled with compensatory costs not exceeding—
(A) Six month’s
(B) Nine month’s
(C) Eleven month’s
(D) One year’s rent of the accommodation at a time.
35. The stay of the operation of the order of eviction passed by a Rent Controlling Authority or by the High Court shall not enure for a total period of more than—
Immediately preceding the date of suit for the recovery of possession of the filing thereof.
(A) Two months
(B) Four months
(C) Six months
(D) Sixty days
36. Every tenant shall pay rent within the time fixed by the contract or in absence of any such contract by the—
(A) Sixteenth day
(B) Twenty-first day
(C) Fifteenth day.
(D) Last day
37. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation let to him is cut-off by the landlord, who will make an order to restore such supply?
(A) Collector
(B) Civil Court
(C) Rent Controlling Authority
(D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be
38. If the essential supply enjoyed by the tenenat is found to be cut-off by the landlord without just and sufficient cause, Rent Controlling Authority may direct that compensation not exceeding—
(A) One hundred rupees
(B) Three hundred rupees
(C) Five hundred rupees
(D) Fifty rupees
to be paid by the landlord to the tenant.
39. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within—
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Three years
(D) Three months
from the date of commission of the offence.
40. Provisions of Transfer of Property Act shall be applicable—
(A) Where property is transferred in execution of decree of the Court
(B) Where the property of insolvent vests in Receiver by the order of the Court
(C) Where the property is transferred by the act of parties
(D) To intestate succession
41. ‘Attested’ in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to have mean attested by at least—
(A) One witness
(B) Two witnesses
(C) Three witnesses
(D) Four witnesses
42. Which one of the following statements is not correct, in context of ‘transfer of property’?
(A) It means an act by which a living person conveys property
(B) He conveys property in present or in future
(C) He conveys property to one or more other living persons
(D) He cannot transfer property to himself and one or more other living persons
43. To be competent to transfer property it is not essential that—
(A)Person be major
(B)Person be of sound mind
(C)Person is competent to contract
(D)Transferable property is his own
44. How many types of mortgages are there in Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Even
45. A mortgagor who has executed two or more mortgages in favo1ai of the same mortgagee, in absence of a contract to the contrary—
(A) Is bound to redeem all such mortgages together
(B) Is not entitled to redeem any one such mortgage separately
(C) Is bound to redeem at least two such mortgages together
(D) Be entitled to redeem any one such mortgage separately, or any two or more of such mortgages together
46. A lease of immoveable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or lessee, by—
(A) One month
(B) Six months
(C) Three months
(D) Sixty days
notice expiring with the end of a year of the tenancy.
47. A lease of immoveable property from year to year, can be made by—
(A) Oral agreement
(B) Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
(C) Simple instrument
(D) Only by a registered instrument
48. Where a lease of immoveable property is made by a registered instrument, such instrument shall be executed—
(A) By lessor only
(B)By leassee only
(C)By either of the two
(D)By both the lessor and the lessee
49. What is not required in ‘Gift’?
(A) Donor and donee
(B) Consideration
(C) Moveable or immoveable property
(D) Transfer and acceptance
50. For the purpose of making a gift of immoveable property, the transfer must be affected—
(A) By delivery of possession
(B) By a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and duly attested
(C) By simple instrument
(D) By simple instrument accompanied by delivery of possession

No comments:

Post a Comment