RPSC judicial services exam multiple choice questions
Law legal Questions Model paper for RPSC Judicial Service
RPSC Judicial Service Prelims Exam Answer
1. Which is not the stolen property?
(A) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating
(B) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery
(C) Possession whereof was obtained by dacoity
(D) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust
2. Any hurt is ‘grevious’ if it causes the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits during the space to?
(A) Fifteen days
(B) Twenty days
(C) Twenty five days
(D) Thirty days
3. Under Section 498—A cruelty means mentaland physical torture
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
(C) Only demand of dowry includes
(D) Only physical torture includes
4. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child with intention of taking dishonestly any movable property from the person of such child, shall be punished under Section 369 of I.P.C. if the child is under?
(A) Ten years
(B) Twelve years
(C) Fourteen years
(D) Fifteen years
5. ‘A’ makes an attempt to pick the pocket of ‘B’ by trusting his hand into ‘B’s pocket. A fails in attempt in consequence of ‘B’s having nothing in his pocket. A is guilty of—
(A) No offence
(B) Theft
(C) Attempt of theft
(D) Using criminal force
6. Warrant case means a case?
(A) In which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(B) In which the court in first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the accused
(C) Relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years
(D) Relating to an offence punishable with death, for life or for a term exceeding two years
7. In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non cognizable the whole case shall be deemed to be?
(A) Cognizable
(B) Non-cognizable
(C) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
(D) It is to be seen whether it is a summons case
8. The court of magistrate 1st class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not
exceeding?
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) Four years
9. The maximum term of imprisonment awardable in a summary trial is?
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) One year
(D) Two years
10. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion, after hearing the evidence for prosecution and the accused, that the accused is guilty and that he ought to receive a severe punishment, then such Magistrate is empowered to inflict the Magistrate may forward the case to?
(A) Session Judge
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Concerned Police ration
11. Inherent power under Section 482 Cr.P.C. can be exercised by?
(A) Any Criminal Court
(B) The Supreme Court only
(C) The Court of Session and High Court
(D) The High Court
12. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under
Section 320 of Cr.P.C. is dead, then?
(A) Offence cannot be compounded
(B) Offence can be compounded by any eye witness
(C) Offence can be compounded by the legal representative of such person without the consent of the court
(D) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the court
13. When will proceeding be vitiated if the Magistrate is not empowered to do so?
(A) To issue a search warrant U/S 94 of Cr.P.C.
(B) To hold an inguest U/S 176 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Tries an offender summarily
(D) To tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.
14. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband U/S 125 of Cr.P.C.
if?
(A) She has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not remarried
(B) She is unable to maintain herself
(C) She refused to live with her husband on the ground that keeps a mistress
(D) She is living in adultery
15. If a person in Lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody, he escaped may, immediately pursue and arrest him?
(A) Within Local limits of the police station concerned
(B) Within Local limits of the District
(C) With Local limits of the state
(D) In any place in INDIA
16. What is true about Court of sessions?
(A) It can take cognizance without commitment
(B) It can’t take cognizance without commitment
(C) It can take cognizance on DM’s recommendation
(D) It can take cognizance if chalan put up by S.P.
17. In relation to F.I.R., which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) It is not a substantive evidence
(B) It merely marks the beginning of the investigation
(C) It cannot be used as a previous statement for any purpose
(D) The informant need not be an eye witness
18. If in a criminal appeal an accused dies and his near relatives wish to continue, within how much time they must apply?
(A) Four months
(B) Three months
(C) Sixty days
(D) Thirty days
19. Three year period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance, of the offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding?
(A) One year
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Seven years
20. In relation to expressions defined in S. 3 of the Indian Evidence Act which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) Facts include not only physical facts but also psychological facts
(B) Court includes Arbitrators
(C) An inscription on a stone is a document
(D) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disapproved
21. A voluntarily confession is admissible in evidence?
(A) When made to a police officer
(B) To Magistrate having competent jurisdiction
(C) To a village sarpanch with request to save him from police
(D) Where it leads to no discovery of facts and made to the police officer
22. For proving execution of a registered will—
(A) Be necessary to call at least two attesting witness
(B) Be necessary to call, at least one attesting witness
(C) Not necessary to call any attesting witness
(D) Be necessary to call the registrar
23. Unless non-access is proved, the presumption as to legitimacy of any child born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is?
(A) Rebuttable presumption of Law
(B) Presumption of fact
(C) Mixed presumption of law and fact
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
24. Admissions are—
(A) Conclusive proof
(B) May operate as estoppels
(C) Always irrelevent
(D) None of the above
25. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without ticket, the burden of proving that ‘A’ had a ticket is on?
(A) Ticket checker
(B) Railway
(C) ‘A’
(D) Prosecution
26. ‘A’ document is said to be in the handwriting of ‘A’. That document is produced from proper custody. If the document is purporting or proved to be………… years old, court may presume that is in ‘A”s handwriting.
(A) Thirty
(B) Fifteen
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
27. What number of witnesses will be required
for the proof of any fact?
(A) No particular number
(B) At least one eye witness
(C) Two witnesses with regard to documents
(D) One party and one witness
28. Leading question?
(A) May be asked in examination in chief
(B) May be asked in cross-examination
(C) May be asked in re-examination
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances
29. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Estoppel is not a rule of Evidence
(B) Estoppel form record constitutes bar of resjudicata
(C) There can be estoppel on a point of law
(D) There can be not estoppel when the truth of the matter is known to both parties
30. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. The fact that, on that day ‘A’ was at Chennai is relevant—
(A) As a motive for fact in issue
(B) As introductory to fact in issue
(C) As preparation of relevant fact
(D) As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly improvable
31. A person summoned to produce a document when produces the document then—
(A) He becomes a witness
(B) He cross-examined by both the parties
(C) He is cross-examined with the permission of the court
(D) He does not become witness and cannot cross-examined unless and until he is called as a witness
32. The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called—
(A) Main examination
(B) Additional cross-examination
(C) Re-examination
(D) Re-cross examination
33. Which of the following is not an ‘accommodation’ as defined in 2(a) of the C.G.A.C. Act—
(A) House
(B) Agriculture land
(C) Shop
(D) Gumti
34. Who is not a land lord for the purpose of Section 23(3) of C.G.A.C. Act?
(A) A retired servant of any Government
(B) A servant of any Government
(C) A divorced wife
(D) A handicapped person
35. Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made on the ground that the residence for himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to obtain possession thereof before the expiration of period of?
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year from the date of order
36. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within?
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Three years
(D) Three months from the de of commission of the offence
37. After the service of notice of demand, no suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of default in payment of arrears of rent shall be instituted until the expiration of?
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) Fifteen days
38. The rent controlling Authority should, not below the rank of?
(A) Tahsildar
(B) Asstt. Supd. land records
(C) Deputy collector
(D) Civil Judge
39. A landlord making false the frivolous application U/S 23A of A.C. Act may be saddled with compensatory costs not exceeding………… rent of the accommodation at a time?
(A) Six months
(B) Nine months
(C) Eleven months
(D) One year
40. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation, let to him is cut off by the landlord. Who will make an order to restore such supply?
(A) Collector
(B) Civil Court
(C) Rent Controlling Authority
(D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be
41. On the complaint of tenant if he is satisfied that the landlord without any reasonable cause refused to accept rent he may levy on the landlord a fine who is he?
(A) Judicial Magistrate first class
(B) Rent controlling Authority
(C) District Magistrate
(D) District Judge
42. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under the Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within…………. from the date of commission of the offence
(A) Six month’s
(B) One year
(C) Three years
(D) Three months
43. Which is not the immovable property?
(A) A lease of land
(B) Growing crops
(C) A right of way
(D) A life interest in the income of immovable property
44. In which of the following cases, a transfer of immovable property can be made without writing—
(A) Sale of property of a value more than Rs.100
(B) Lease for a term of 11 months
(C) Exchange
(D) Actionable claim
45. The doctrine of Lispendese applies where—
(A) The suit is collusive
(B) The transfer is made after the decree the filing of an appeal
(C) Right to movable property is in question
(D) Property is situated outside the territorial jurisdiction of the court
46. What kind of property is transferable?
(A) Right of re-entry
(B) Public Office
(C) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
(D) Pension
47. ‘Attested’ in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to have mean attested by least—
(A) One witness
(B) Two witnesses
(C) Three witnesses
(D) Four witnesses
48. Whether a transfer can be made in favour of
an unborn person?
(A) Yes, by machinery of trust
(B) Yes
(C) Guardian has got to be appointed first
(D) None of the above
49. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called?
(A) Anomalous mortgage
(B) English mortgage
(C) Equitable mortgage
(D) Usufructuary mortgage
50. A lease of immovable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or leasee, by?
(A) One month
(B) Six month’s
(C) Three month’s
(D) Sixty days notice expiring with the end of a year of the tenancy
ANSWERS:
1 A
2 B
3 A
4 A
5 C
6 D
7 A
8 A
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 D
13 C
14 D
15 D
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 B
20 B
21 B
22 B
23 D
24 B
25 C
26 A
27 A
28 B
29 B
30 D
31 D
32 C
33 B
34 B
35 A
36 D
37 B
38 C
39 A
40 C
41 B
42 D
43 B
44 B
45 B
46 C
47 B
48 A
49 C
50 B
Law legal Questions Model paper for RPSC Judicial Service
RPSC Judicial Service Prelims Exam Answer
1. Which is not the stolen property?
(A) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating
(B) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery
(C) Possession whereof was obtained by dacoity
(D) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust
2. Any hurt is ‘grevious’ if it causes the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits during the space to?
(A) Fifteen days
(B) Twenty days
(C) Twenty five days
(D) Thirty days
3. Under Section 498—A cruelty means mentaland physical torture
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
(C) Only demand of dowry includes
(D) Only physical torture includes
4. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child with intention of taking dishonestly any movable property from the person of such child, shall be punished under Section 369 of I.P.C. if the child is under?
(A) Ten years
(B) Twelve years
(C) Fourteen years
(D) Fifteen years
5. ‘A’ makes an attempt to pick the pocket of ‘B’ by trusting his hand into ‘B’s pocket. A fails in attempt in consequence of ‘B’s having nothing in his pocket. A is guilty of—
(A) No offence
(B) Theft
(C) Attempt of theft
(D) Using criminal force
6. Warrant case means a case?
(A) In which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(B) In which the court in first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the accused
(C) Relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years
(D) Relating to an offence punishable with death, for life or for a term exceeding two years
7. In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non cognizable the whole case shall be deemed to be?
(A) Cognizable
(B) Non-cognizable
(C) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
(D) It is to be seen whether it is a summons case
8. The court of magistrate 1st class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not
exceeding?
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) Four years
9. The maximum term of imprisonment awardable in a summary trial is?
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) One year
(D) Two years
10. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion, after hearing the evidence for prosecution and the accused, that the accused is guilty and that he ought to receive a severe punishment, then such Magistrate is empowered to inflict the Magistrate may forward the case to?
(A) Session Judge
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Concerned Police ration
11. Inherent power under Section 482 Cr.P.C. can be exercised by?
(A) Any Criminal Court
(B) The Supreme Court only
(C) The Court of Session and High Court
(D) The High Court
12. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under
Section 320 of Cr.P.C. is dead, then?
(A) Offence cannot be compounded
(B) Offence can be compounded by any eye witness
(C) Offence can be compounded by the legal representative of such person without the consent of the court
(D) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the court
13. When will proceeding be vitiated if the Magistrate is not empowered to do so?
(A) To issue a search warrant U/S 94 of Cr.P.C.
(B) To hold an inguest U/S 176 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Tries an offender summarily
(D) To tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.
14. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband U/S 125 of Cr.P.C.
if?
(A) She has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not remarried
(B) She is unable to maintain herself
(C) She refused to live with her husband on the ground that keeps a mistress
(D) She is living in adultery
15. If a person in Lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody, he escaped may, immediately pursue and arrest him?
(A) Within Local limits of the police station concerned
(B) Within Local limits of the District
(C) With Local limits of the state
(D) In any place in INDIA
16. What is true about Court of sessions?
(A) It can take cognizance without commitment
(B) It can’t take cognizance without commitment
(C) It can take cognizance on DM’s recommendation
(D) It can take cognizance if chalan put up by S.P.
17. In relation to F.I.R., which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) It is not a substantive evidence
(B) It merely marks the beginning of the investigation
(C) It cannot be used as a previous statement for any purpose
(D) The informant need not be an eye witness
18. If in a criminal appeal an accused dies and his near relatives wish to continue, within how much time they must apply?
(A) Four months
(B) Three months
(C) Sixty days
(D) Thirty days
19. Three year period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance, of the offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding?
(A) One year
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Seven years
20. In relation to expressions defined in S. 3 of the Indian Evidence Act which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) Facts include not only physical facts but also psychological facts
(B) Court includes Arbitrators
(C) An inscription on a stone is a document
(D) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disapproved
21. A voluntarily confession is admissible in evidence?
(A) When made to a police officer
(B) To Magistrate having competent jurisdiction
(C) To a village sarpanch with request to save him from police
(D) Where it leads to no discovery of facts and made to the police officer
22. For proving execution of a registered will—
(A) Be necessary to call at least two attesting witness
(B) Be necessary to call, at least one attesting witness
(C) Not necessary to call any attesting witness
(D) Be necessary to call the registrar
23. Unless non-access is proved, the presumption as to legitimacy of any child born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is?
(A) Rebuttable presumption of Law
(B) Presumption of fact
(C) Mixed presumption of law and fact
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
24. Admissions are—
(A) Conclusive proof
(B) May operate as estoppels
(C) Always irrelevent
(D) None of the above
25. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without ticket, the burden of proving that ‘A’ had a ticket is on?
(A) Ticket checker
(B) Railway
(C) ‘A’
(D) Prosecution
26. ‘A’ document is said to be in the handwriting of ‘A’. That document is produced from proper custody. If the document is purporting or proved to be………… years old, court may presume that is in ‘A”s handwriting.
(A) Thirty
(B) Fifteen
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
27. What number of witnesses will be required
for the proof of any fact?
(A) No particular number
(B) At least one eye witness
(C) Two witnesses with regard to documents
(D) One party and one witness
28. Leading question?
(A) May be asked in examination in chief
(B) May be asked in cross-examination
(C) May be asked in re-examination
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances
29. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Estoppel is not a rule of Evidence
(B) Estoppel form record constitutes bar of resjudicata
(C) There can be estoppel on a point of law
(D) There can be not estoppel when the truth of the matter is known to both parties
30. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. The fact that, on that day ‘A’ was at Chennai is relevant—
(A) As a motive for fact in issue
(B) As introductory to fact in issue
(C) As preparation of relevant fact
(D) As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly improvable
31. A person summoned to produce a document when produces the document then—
(A) He becomes a witness
(B) He cross-examined by both the parties
(C) He is cross-examined with the permission of the court
(D) He does not become witness and cannot cross-examined unless and until he is called as a witness
32. The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called—
(A) Main examination
(B) Additional cross-examination
(C) Re-examination
(D) Re-cross examination
33. Which of the following is not an ‘accommodation’ as defined in 2(a) of the C.G.A.C. Act—
(A) House
(B) Agriculture land
(C) Shop
(D) Gumti
34. Who is not a land lord for the purpose of Section 23(3) of C.G.A.C. Act?
(A) A retired servant of any Government
(B) A servant of any Government
(C) A divorced wife
(D) A handicapped person
35. Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made on the ground that the residence for himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to obtain possession thereof before the expiration of period of?
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year from the date of order
36. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within?
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Three years
(D) Three months from the de of commission of the offence
37. After the service of notice of demand, no suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of default in payment of arrears of rent shall be instituted until the expiration of?
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) Fifteen days
38. The rent controlling Authority should, not below the rank of?
(A) Tahsildar
(B) Asstt. Supd. land records
(C) Deputy collector
(D) Civil Judge
39. A landlord making false the frivolous application U/S 23A of A.C. Act may be saddled with compensatory costs not exceeding………… rent of the accommodation at a time?
(A) Six months
(B) Nine months
(C) Eleven months
(D) One year
40. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation, let to him is cut off by the landlord. Who will make an order to restore such supply?
(A) Collector
(B) Civil Court
(C) Rent Controlling Authority
(D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be
41. On the complaint of tenant if he is satisfied that the landlord without any reasonable cause refused to accept rent he may levy on the landlord a fine who is he?
(A) Judicial Magistrate first class
(B) Rent controlling Authority
(C) District Magistrate
(D) District Judge
42. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under the Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within…………. from the date of commission of the offence
(A) Six month’s
(B) One year
(C) Three years
(D) Three months
43. Which is not the immovable property?
(A) A lease of land
(B) Growing crops
(C) A right of way
(D) A life interest in the income of immovable property
44. In which of the following cases, a transfer of immovable property can be made without writing—
(A) Sale of property of a value more than Rs.100
(B) Lease for a term of 11 months
(C) Exchange
(D) Actionable claim
45. The doctrine of Lispendese applies where—
(A) The suit is collusive
(B) The transfer is made after the decree the filing of an appeal
(C) Right to movable property is in question
(D) Property is situated outside the territorial jurisdiction of the court
46. What kind of property is transferable?
(A) Right of re-entry
(B) Public Office
(C) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
(D) Pension
47. ‘Attested’ in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to have mean attested by least—
(A) One witness
(B) Two witnesses
(C) Three witnesses
(D) Four witnesses
48. Whether a transfer can be made in favour of
an unborn person?
(A) Yes, by machinery of trust
(B) Yes
(C) Guardian has got to be appointed first
(D) None of the above
49. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called?
(A) Anomalous mortgage
(B) English mortgage
(C) Equitable mortgage
(D) Usufructuary mortgage
50. A lease of immovable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or leasee, by?
(A) One month
(B) Six month’s
(C) Three month’s
(D) Sixty days notice expiring with the end of a year of the tenancy
ANSWERS:
1 A
2 B
3 A
4 A
5 C
6 D
7 A
8 A
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 D
13 C
14 D
15 D
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 B
20 B
21 B
22 B
23 D
24 B
25 C
26 A
27 A
28 B
29 B
30 D
31 D
32 C
33 B
34 B
35 A
36 D
37 B
38 C
39 A
40 C
41 B
42 D
43 B
44 B
45 B
46 C
47 B
48 A
49 C
50 B
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