Friday, May 15, 2015

Free online practice law objective Questions for exams

Free online practice law objective Questions for exams
Law Sample Paper for Civil Judge Public Prosecutor Exams
1. A Muslim goes to any country of the world—
(A) With his personal law
(B) Without his personal law
(C) Leaving his personal law in hi country
(D) With an object of obeying the laws of the country concerned which includes personal law
Ans:-D
2. Where a Muslim male and a Muslim female contract their marriage under the Special Marriage Act. 1954, Muslim personal law—
(A) Applies to such marriage
(B) Does not apply
(C) Applies with some modifications
(D) Applies with the Indian Contract Act.
Ans:-B
3. Under the Shia Law, if the husband has capacity to speak but announces Talak in writing the Talak is—
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Void
(D) Valid barring certain circumstances
Ans:-C
4. Under the Muslim Law, marriage is regarded as a—
(A) Sacrament
(B) Contract
(C) Social need
(D) Tradition
Ans:-B
5. The essential condition of a gift under Muslim Law is—
(A) Declaration of the gift by the donor
(B) Acceptance of the gift by the donor
(C) Delivery of possession of subject matter of the gift
(D) All the above
Ans:-D
6. Wakf can be made by—
(A) A Muslim only
(B) A Hindu only
(C) Both Hindu and Muslim
(D) Neither by Hindu nor by Muslim
Ans:-A
7. Hanuman Prasad V/s Musammat Babooee is a case on—
(A) Powers of a Karta of the Hindu joint family
(B) Avyavaharik debt
(C)Power of adoption of a widow
(D)None of the above
Ans:-A
8. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for conditions of marriage?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 9
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 11
Ans:-A
9. In which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 general rules of succession in the case of female Hindus is provided?
(A) Section 15 ,
(B) Section 14
(C) Section 18
(D) Section 16
Ans:-A
10. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into force on—
(A) 1st January, 1955
(B) 1st May, 1955
(C) 26th January, 1955
(D) 18th May, 1955
Ans:-D
11. Dastane V/s Dastane is a case on—
(A) Adoption
(B) Divorce
(C) Marriage
(D) Maintenance
Ans:-B
12. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(A) Divorce by mutual consent has been provided under the Hindu Marriage Act, from its inception
(B) Divorce by mutual consent was introduced by Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Act, 1976
(C) Divorce by mutual consent has been provided under Sec. 13-A of the Hindu Marriage Act
(D) A petition for divorce by mutual consent must be presented within one year of marriage
Ans:-B
13. Match List-I and List—IT and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(a) Marriage between parties within degrees of prohibited relationship
(b) Impotency
(c) Marriage between two sapindas of each other
(d) Pregnancy of wife at the time of marriage by some person other than the petitioner
List-II
1. Voidable 2. Void
3. Voidable 4. Void
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans:-A
14. Assertion (A) A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law.
Reason (R) A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents.
Choose the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-B
15. Assertion (A) : Extra judicial confession, if voluntary, can be relied upon with other evidence.
Reason (R) Extra judicial confession is a weak piece of evidence.
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
16. Which one of the following sections of the Evidence Act defines admission?
(A) Section 16
(B) Section 17
(C) Section 20
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
17 Which of the following does not find a mention as showing state of mind under Sec. 14 of the Evidence Act?
(A) Intention
(B) Knowledge
(C) Motive
(D) Good faith
Ans:-C
18. Which one of the following is not essential condition for admissibility of dying declaration?
(A) Death of the person making dying declaration
(B) Statement must be as to the cause of his death
(C) Person making statement was under expectation of death at the time he made the statement
(D) Statement is as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted into his death
Ans:-C
19. Under which of the Following provisions of the Evidence Act the word “forming part of the same transaction” occurs?
(A) Under Sec. 5
(B) Under Sec. 6
(C) Under Sec. 7
(D) Under Sec. 8
Ans:-B
20. “A’ s” death is caused due to negligent driving of ‘B’. In the suit for damages against ‘B’ which of the following fact is not relevant?
(A) The fact that ‘A’ was an young man of 30 years
(B) The fact that ‘A’ was an young man with good physique
(C) The fact that ‘A’ had qualified in P.C.S.
(D) The fact that ‘B’ was in the habit of driving negligently
Ans:-C
21. The provision relating to estoppels is contained in the Evidence Act in—
(A) Section 115
(B) Section 117
(C) Section 118
(D) Section 114
Ans:-A
22. Presumption as to abetment to commit suicide by a married woman has been given—
(A) Under Sec. 114 of the Evidence Act
(B) Under Sec. 113-A of the Evidence Act
(C) Under Sec. 113-B of the Evidence Act
(D) Under Sec. 112 of the Evidence Act
Ans:-B
23. Which one of the following is not a public document?
(A) An unregistered family settlement
(B) A registered sale deed
(C) Judgement of a High Court
(D) Judgement of a Civil Judge
Ans:-A
24. Which Sec. of Indian Evidence Act is based on the maxim SALUS POPULIEST SUMREMA LEX?
(A) Section 119
(B) Section 120
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 123
Ans:-D
25. A fact neither proved nor disproved is known as—
(A) Proved
(B) Disproved
(C) Not proved
(D) Conclusive proof
Ans:-C
26. The case, Pakala Narain Swamy V/s Emperor relates to—
(A) Doctrine of estoppels
(B) Dying declaration
(C) Accomplice
(D) Cross-examination
Ans:-B
27. Match List-I and List—II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(Relevancy of facts)
(a) Facts as effect of facts in issue
(b) Facts forming part of same transaction
(c) Facts which constitute preparation for any fact in issue
(d) Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts
List—II
(Section of Evidence Acts)
1. Sec.9
2. Sec.8
3. Sec. 7
4. Sec. 6
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-C
28. Which one of the following provisions of the Evidence Act provides that previous bad character of an accused is not relevant?
(A) Section 54
(B) Section 52
(C) Section 53
(D) Section 118
Ans:-A
29. Which of the following section of the Evidence Act says that confession caused by
Inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant?
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 26
(C) Section 27
(D) None of these
Ans:-D
30. In which of the following cases it was held that Sec. 27 of the Evidence Act is an exception to Sections 24, 25 and 26?
(A) Pakala Narain Swamy V/s King Emperor
(B) Inayatullah V/s State of Maharashtra
(C) State of U.P. V/s Deoman Upadhyay
(D) Kotayya V/s King Emperor
Ans:-D
31. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be—
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Primary evidence
(D) Secondary evidence
Ans:-A
32. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called—
(A) Indecent question
(B) Scandalous question
(C) Question intended to annoy
(D) Leading question
Ans:-D
33. Leading question—
(A) May be asked in examination-in-chief
(B) May be asked in cross-examination
(C) May be asked in re-examination
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances
Ans:-B
34. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Admissions can be oral only
(B) Admissions can be documentary only
(C) Admissions can be oral or documentary
(D) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted
Ans:-C
35. The facts, though not in issue, are so connected with fact in issue, as to form part of same transaction are—
(A) Relevant under the rule of res gestae
(B) Not relevant
(C) Hearsay evidence
(D) Primary evidence
Ans:-A
36. Admissions and confessions are—
1. Exception to the hearsay evidence
2. Part of hearsay evidence
3. From relevant evidence
4. Admitted in evidence on proof
Select the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1,2 and 4
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) l and 2
(D) 2
Ans:-B
37. Under which section of Cr.PC. Sessions Court exercises power of appeal from convictions?
(A) Sections 372
(B) Sections 397
(C) Sections 374
(D) Sections 398
Ans:-C
38. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an order from attachment of property of person absconding may be passed at any time after the issue of the proclamation?
(A) Section 83
(B) Section 82
(C) Section 84
(D) Section 85
Ans:-A
39. Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides for confirmation by the High Court of an order of death sentence passed by Sessions Court prior to its execution?
(A) Section 368
(B) Section 366
(C) Section 371
(D) Section 369
Ans:-B
40. When the Sessions Judge or the High Court calls for to examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it is known as—
(A) Reference
(B) Review
(C) Revision
(D) None of these
Ans:-C
41. Which one of the following orders can be passed after the trial of a case is over?
(A) Only an order of acquittal
(B) Only an order of conviction
(C) Order of discharge
(D) Either an order of acquittal or conviction
Ans:-D
42. First Information Report—
(A) Relates to cognizable or non-cognizable offence
(B) Is given to a Magistrate or Police Officer
(C) Relates prima facie to a cognizable offence
(D) May be given to the District Magistrate
Ans:-C
43. Under which Section of the Cr.P.Code anticipatory bail may be granted to a person
Apprehending his arrest?
(A) Section 438
(B) Section 439
(C) Section 436
(D) Section 437
Ans:-A
44. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
1. Made by a Magistrate Investigation
2. Object is to collect evidence Inquiry
3. Ordinarily second stage of Inquiry a criminal case
4. It is not a judicial Investigation proceeding
Select the correct answer with the help of the code given below—
Code:
(A) l and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans:-C
45.Assertion (A) : The purpose of criminal law is to prevent crimes.
Reason (R) : In certain situations even a private person can arrest another person.
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) .
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false ‘
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
46. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding two years relates to—
(A) Summon case
(B) Warrant case
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
47. Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Police Officer can arrest a person without an order
From a Magistate and without warrant?
(A) Section 42
(B) Section 40
(C) Section 51
(D) Section 41
Ans:-D
48. Under which section of the Cr.P.C. a person who is avoiding execution of a warrant may be proclaimed absconder?
(A) Section 81
(B) Section 83
(C) Section 82
(D) Section 84
Ans:-C
49. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an accused person can himself be a competent witness?
(A) Section 315
(B) Section 300
(C) Section 313
(D) Section 317
Ans:-A
50. Who among the following is authorised to record a confessional statement under
Section164 Cr.P.C?
(A) A Police Officer
(B) An Executive Magistrate
(C) A Judicial Magistrate
(D) Neither an Executive Magistrate nor a Judicial Magistrate
Ans:-C
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